Matthew 24:14 for the partial preterist?

[RICHinCHRIST]

In my own reading of Scripture (before ever hearing of the partial-preterist view) I wrestled with this verse due to being taught the pre-trib dispensational view in the fellowship I currently attend.

From what I remember of Steve's teaching on this subject, he believes that all of Matthew 24 up to verse 34 was fulfilled in A.D. 70. From 24:35 to the end of the chapter it is referring to the second coming, in his opinion.

If this is so, do partial-preterists interpret "all the world" in Matthew 24:14 as only the known world at the time of Jesus? The verse I hear quoted often is Paul's declaration of the gospel reaching every creature under heaven (Col 1:23). To me, this seems to be hyperbole. But is Jesus speaking in hyberbole? Also, I'm assuming that "the end", in the partial preterist view, refers to the end of the Jewish age which culminated at the destruction of the temple.

I've also heard many arguments that the gospel has reached "all the world", at least in every major part of the world, they say. They don't include the many unreached people groups in South Asia or other places as part of "all the world" because even though there are peoples who haven't heard, for the most part their geographic coordinates have been reached enough to say that "all the world" and "all nations" have been reached, although not every member or language of those nations have been.

I kind of went on a tangent (sorry!). My question is this: What is the partial preterist interpretation of Matthew 24:14 as it refers to "all the world", and its fulfillment time indicated in Matthew 24:34? Was the entire known world reached by A.D. 70?

[mattrose]

My thought, as a partial preterist, is that if we let the Bible speak for itself, there is not an issue here. In other words, both Jesus, Luke & Paul were using common hyperbole.

Here's a good partial-preterist commentary on this verse from:
http://preteristsite.com/plain/warrenend.html#matt2414

Matthew 24:14: And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in all the world as a witness to all the nations, and then the end will come.

So WAS the gospel preached "in all the world" and "to all the nations" in the first century? Well not to be a wise guy, but we know it was before AD70 for one very simple reason. Jesus said it would happen with that generation. Now that may be convincing to those of us who just simply accept the Bible (okay that was a cheap shot and not accurate, but I couldn't resist—forgive me) but to others, not as convincing, and to those indoctrinated in futurism, not too convincing at all . . . so what does the rest of the NT have to say about this??

Colossians 1:5–6: . . . because of the hope which is laid up for you in heaven, of which you heard before in the word of the truth of the gospel, which has come to you, as it has also in all the world, and is bringing forth fruit, as it is also among you since the day you heard and knew the grace of God in truth.

Colossians 1:23: . . . if indeed you continue in the faith, grounded and steadfast, and are not moved away from the hope of the gospel which you heard, which was preached to every creature under heaven,, of which I, Paul, became a minister.

Paul says that the Gospel was even preached to every creature under heaven at the time he wrote to the Church at Colosse and was even bearing fruit in the whole world.

When the Gospel was preached at Pentecost, who was there to hear it??

Acts 2:5: And there were dwelling in Jerusalem Jews, devout men, from every nation under heaven.

Representatives of every nation heard the Gospel then; and as Pentecost was a feast to which people traveled far and wide, they carried the Gospel back their homelands: "every nation under heaven."

Paul told the Romans that their faith was being proclaimed to all the nations and throughout the whole world.

Romans 1:5–6: Through Him we have received grace and apostleship for obedience to the faith among all nations for His name, among whom you also are the called of Jesus Christ

Romans 16:25–26: Now to Him who is able to establish you according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery kept secret since the world began but now made manifest, and by the prophetic Scriptures made known to all nations, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, for obedience to the faith.

Some may ask how this could possibly be. . . . well even if I could not explain it, it would still be true because that is how the Bible defines "the Gospel being preached to all the nations" and the Bible must be allowed to interpret the Bible. The word for "world" in Matthew 24:14 is "oikoumene" which means the "inhabited earth" which very often in the NT simply means the Roman Empire. We forget that Rome was the "world" of that time, made up of many, many nations. This same word is used in Luke 2:1 about the census that was ordered that caused Joseph and Mary to have to go to Bethlehem. No one teaches that even the American Indians were ordered to be censused as well, but that is the same word used in Matthew 24:14—oikoumene.

Also we must remember that the Jews were, and still are, a very colourful and passionate people. Their idioms and means of communication often employed hyperbole and exaggeration for effect. It was part and parcel of that culture. We are guilty of cultural snobbery or anachronism when we are being overly literal about such things. The Bible must tell us how to interpret the Bible even if it means we must topple the idol of "literalism" that we have erected today. Biblically literal means that we interpret things literally in the sense that they were intended to be understood.

If you were to say that "it is raining cats and dogs outside," you would literally mean that it is raining very hard. I would not be taking you literally in a proper way if I grabbed a kennel instead of an umbrella. You literally meant that it was raining very hard.

This kind of "globalization" is typical in the Scripture. . .

Cyrus the King of Persia said, "The Lord, the God of Heaven, has given me all the kingdoms of the earth." (Ezra 1:2; 2 Chron. 36:23)

David writes, "All nations surrounded me." (Psalm 118:10)

God "brought the fear of David on all the nations." (1 Chron. 14:17)

It is written of Hezekiah King of Judah "that he was exalted in the sight of all nations. . . ." (2 Chron. 32:23)

The Chaldeans are said to "march throughout the earth." (Hab. 1:6)

"The people from all the earth came to Egypt to buy grain from Joseph." (Genesis 41:57)

"All the earth was seeking the presence of Solomon." (1 Kings 10:24)

"And all the nations shall serve him and his son, and his grandson until the time of his own land comes." (Jer. 27:7)

Nebuchadnezzar addresses his decree as "the king to all the people, nations, and men of every language that live in all the earth." (Daniel 4:1)

For reference material on the above see [De Geo]

Some may be wondering, what about world missions today? Are they still required? Yes! Matthew 24 has little to do with them. They are still required. The lesson here is that the "world" is the frame of reference in view in any particular situation. In the first century, their "world" was the Roman Empire. Today our "world" is literally the planet. In two thousand years, our "world" may include human habitations on Mars.

The Church Fathers certainly understood the Scripture as being hyperbolic[Gh Per 26–27]:

And Paul, because of jealousy and contention, has become the very time of endurance rewarded. He was in bonds seven times, he was exiled, he was stoned. He preached in the East and West, winning a noble reputation for his faith. He taught righteousness to all the world; and after reaching the furthest limits of the West, and bearing his testimony before kings and rulers. . . " (Clement of Rome, 1 Clement 5) cited in [Gh Per 26]

A still more astonishing story follows a paragraph later, where it is stated that an oracle was found in their sacred writing to the effect that a man from their country would become monarch of the whole world: this oracle the historian himself believed to have been fulfilled in Vespasian. But Vespasian did not reign over the entire world, but only the part under Roman rule; it would be more justly applied to Christ, to whom the father has said, Ask of me, and I will give you the heathen world for your inheritance, and for your possession the ends of the earth. At that very time it was true of His apostles that Their speech went out to the whole earth, and their words to the ends of the world (Eusebius, "Ecclesiastical History" 3.8) cited in [Gh Per 26–27]

It is also useful to ask why Jesus would emphasize this as something that needed to happen before "the end" (which I submit is the destruction of Jerusalem) came? To keep Rome from easily destroying the Church, as it would destroy Biblical Judaism (which hasn't existed since that time as modern Judaism is Rabbinic Judaism—a totally different species) by not centralizing His Church in one specific confined location.

[RICHinCHRIST]

Thanks Matt! That was a very good explanation. Verse 34 is what has really brought me toward leaning on the partial preterist view. It was great to see all those examples of hyperbole though!