personal translation of Romans 3:19-28

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njd83
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personal translation of Romans 3:19-28

Post by njd83 » Sun Jul 03, 2016 1:27 pm

Now we know that whatever the law says, it speaks to those who are under the law, so that every mouth may be silenced, and the whole world may be held accountable to God. For no human being will be made righteous/justified in his sight by deeds prescribed by the law, for through the law comes the knowledge of sin. But now, apart from law, the righteousness of God has been disclosed, and is attested by the law and the prophets, the righteousness of God through the faith of Jesus Christ for all the believing. For there is no distinction, since all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God; they are now made righteous/justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God put forward as a sacrifice of atonement by his blood, effective through faith. He did this to show his righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over the sins previously committed; it was to prove at the present time that he himself is just and he makes righteous the one who is of the faith of Jesus. Then what becomes of boasting? It is excluded. By what law? By that of works? No, but by the law of faith. For we hold that a person is made righteous/justified by faith apart from works of law. (Romans 3:19–28, nrsv edited)
any comments? its a rough attempt at a literal translation

anybody see the difference translated this way?

thanks, God bless you

Edit: correction, "has the faith of Jesus" to "is of the faith of Jesus"
Last edited by njd83 on Tue Oct 25, 2016 10:48 am, edited 2 times in total.

crgfstr1
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Re: personal translation of Romans 3:19-28

Post by crgfstr1 » Mon Jul 04, 2016 11:09 am

I like it and it goes along with what I believe. I don't know enough to comment on the accuracy of translation tough.

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njd83
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Re: personal translation of Romans 3:19-28

Post by njd83 » Fri Jul 08, 2016 9:20 pm

Do ya'll get the idea about "faith of Jesus" being a dynamic relationship, living and active, versus the possible interpretation that a mere confession of faith, the extreme of which is dead--of which the picture is the life of Jesus as our example of faith activity and love?--the "faith of Jesus"?

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njd83
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Phil 3:9

Post by njd83 » Tue Jul 19, 2016 11:49 am

“Not having my righteousness, which is of law, but that which is through faith of Christ—the righteousness that is from God upon faith,” (Philippians 3:9, YLT edited)
Another attempt at a literal rendering on the topic of justification or "being made righteous" by faith in God

take care
Last edited by njd83 on Tue Oct 25, 2016 10:49 am, edited 1 time in total.

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Paidion
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Re: personal translation of Romans 3:19-28

Post by Paidion » Tue Jul 19, 2016 1:04 pm

it was to prove at the present time that he himself is just and he makes righteous the one who is of the faith of Jesus.
I agree with "makes righteous." Salvation is a life-long process of being saved from sin. It's not merely being "counted righteous" so that when God looks at us He does not see our sin but Christ's righteousness. God is not blind. He sees every one of our evil deeds and wants to deliver us from them. That is why Christ died:

He himself endured our sins in his body on the tree, that we might die to sin and live to righteousness. By his wounds you have been healed. ( Peter 2:24)

But the day will come when that salvation process is complete:

And I am sure of this, that he who began a good work in you will bring it to completion at the day of Jesus Christ. (Philp 1:6 ESV)

However, I suggest greater consistency in the verse from your translation that I quoted at the beginning of this post. I suggest the following as a translation:
it was to prove at the present time that he himself is righteous and he makes righteous the one who is of the faith of Jesus.
This makes sense to me. God is righteous, and He wants to make us righteous.
Paidion

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Homer
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Re: personal translation of Romans 3:19-28

Post by Homer » Wed Jul 20, 2016 5:05 pm

But now, apart from law, the righteousness of God has been disclosed, and is attested by the law and the prophets, the righteousness of God through the faith of Jesus Christ for all the believing.
Note: red words not in Greek text.

Are you saying that we are justified by the faithfulness of Jesus Christ; by that substitutionary death which He died as an act of faith on behalf of those people who would believe? That would make sense of the context as would "faith in Jesus Christ". Given that neither the article "the" nor "of" or "in" are present in the Greek it seems to me the whole context demands one or the other understanding. The point Paul is making is that there is no righteousness through the keeping of The Law, or any law; we are always justified freely (and only) by His grace.

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Paidion
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Re: personal translation of Romans 3:19-28

Post by Paidion » Wed Jul 20, 2016 9:51 pm

Actually the Greek is "ιησου χριστου" which is in the genitive case, and therefore means "of Jesus Christ."
Paidion

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Homer
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Re: personal translation of Romans 3:19-28

Post by Homer » Wed Jul 20, 2016 11:26 pm

Actually the Greek is "ιησου χριστου" which is in the genitive case, and therefore means "of Jesus Christ."
Not necessarily; it can be an objective or subjective genitive. See similar words from Paul:

Galatians 2:16 (NASB)

16. nevertheless knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the Law but through faith in Christ Jesus, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, so that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the Law; since by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified.

Here we have the same genitive twice (underlined), but doesn't Paul's statement (italics) show that he means the genitive in the objective sense, and the same in Romans?

How would the "faith of Christ" justify someone else? One the other hand if it is translated "Faithfulness of Christ", we have something else to discuss.

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Homer
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Re: personal translation of Romans 3:19-28

Post by Homer » Tue Jul 26, 2016 10:01 am

Another thought from the OP:
For there is no distinction, since all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God; they are now made righteous/justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God put forward as a sacrifice of atonement by his blood, effective through faith. He did this to show his righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over the sins previously committed; it was to prove at the present time that he himself is just and he makes righteous the one who is of the faith of Jesus.
Notice that Paul informs us that Jesus' sacrifice was effective for the sins God had passed over, committed prior to Jesus life and death. Thus we see His sacrifice was clearly a propitiation, not merely an empowering us to be good.

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Re: personal translation of Romans 3:19-28

Post by Paidion » Sun Jul 31, 2016 5:37 pm

Hi Homer,

You seem to hold that the sacrifice of Christ works retroactively. Are you suggesting that God could not have passed over former sins if Christ had not sacrificed Himself? In the past, I have encountered your view several times, but cannot see the passage as affirming that idea.

The translation you quoted is good. My personal translation is similar though a bit different at places:

...for all have sinned and lack the glory of God, being made righteous gratuitiously in [or "by"] His grace through the redemption—the one in anointed Jesus, whom God set forth as a means of mercy through faith in His blood for the purpose of manifesting his righteousness, because of the passing over of previously committed sins—in the forbearance of God toward the demonstration of His righteousness, and making righteous the one who is of the faith of Jesus.

The way Paul expressed it is a bit complex, but here is the way I understand it:

In the previous age, God accepted animal sacrifices. They had no efficacy in overcoming wrong doing, but God accepted them, and in His goodwill toward the Israelites' intentions to appease Him, He simply overlooked their sin in the sense that He didn't demand consistent righteousness from them. For He knew they didn't have the ability in themselves to live consistently righteous lives. But He knew that He would send His Son to deliver His people from their sin. After Christ's sacrifice on behalf of all people, it was possible for those who relied on Christ and His means of deliverance from sin, to live consistently righteous lives. Thus after Christ's sacrifice, the righteous God, through His enabling grace (Titus 2:11-15) was the means by which people of faith could be consistently righteous. By "consistently" I don't mean to imply that they would never again say an unkind word, commit a cruel act, think a hateful thought, etc. Rather I mean that such wrongdoing would then be relatively rare.
Paidion

Man judges a person by his past deeds, and administers penalties for his wrongdoing. God judges a person by his present character, and disciplines him that he may become righteous.

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