The Narrow Path Ministries

One of the stumbling blocks Christopher Hitchens used to throw up before Christians in debate is that Jesus did not return soon.

Steve believes that it refers to the judgement of Jerusalem in AD70. I`m just confused as to why it is phrased "coming soon" in relation to that judgement.
It won`t have been what the disciples were expecting or hoping for. But the words seem to be offered by way of comfort.

I`m sure this has been gone over many times on this forum. But just to my question, why did He phrase it this way if what He meant was a temporal and calamitous judgement?

"I come quickly, and my reward is with me, to render to each as his work shall be." - YLT Rev 22:12

To me, the only reasonable understanding of that statement is that the coming refers to either something localized that happened in relatively short order, or else the author of Revelation was not the apostle John and/or was not God-inspired.

I don't think the first option is too bad, in the context of that particular book and genre and revelation. Truthfully, I'm not sure which is actually the case, but I assume the former for the time being.

Other interpretations that I know of seem too tortured to really consider.

Hi Ian,

There are at least 3 reasons 1st century Christians would have found comfort and hope in the judgment on Israel of 70 A.D.:

• Christians were being persecuted by the Jewish religious leaders. The judgment by Rome robbed them of the power to continue to do that.
• The destruction of the temple signaled the end of the old, obsolete covenant under the Law (Hebrews 7:28-8:1,13) and the ushering in of the new and better promises of the new covenant (Hebrews 7:22; 8:6).
• This event was confirmation that Jesus really was where He said He would be - At the right hand of God, reigning over His kingdom.

Ian, it wasn't just "a temporal and calamitous judgement." It came with the gospel (good news) that those who remained faithful until his return would be saved, vindicated, and given the opportunity to live in God's kingdom on earth under the authority of the risen Christ.

Also you said, "It won`t have been what the disciples were expecting or hoping for," but I'm not sure that's right. I'm sure there was some mystery involved in what exactly God's judgement and salvation would look like, but I'm not sure they were looking for the physical return of Jesus like Christians down through the ages have been.

you`ve upped the plausibility of this interpretation a notch or two for me folks. Thanks

Revelation 22:12 “Behold, I am coming soon, bringing my recompense with me, to repay everyone for what he has done.

That sounds an awful lot like the second coming of Christ to me, and that's future.

Timios,
Preterists say Revelation was written before Jesus' return in 70AD, so the “Behold, I am coming soon" was still in the future. (I'm aware that many or most contemporary New Testament scholars believe Revelation was written after the fall of Jerusalem.)

I suppose you could argue the “Behold, I am coming soon" refers to a third coming, just before this world is destroyed and all the resurrected are judged, but this seems strained to me.

Edit:
Andrew Perriman, who has developed a Narrative-Historical hermeneutic, would say the “Behold, I am coming soon" at the end of Revelation refers to Jesus coming in judgment upon Babylon the Great (pagan Rome): Judgment first on the Jews and then on the Jews' enemies. (This was the prophetic announcement in the OT on the literal Babylon, so it's likely what the first century Jews also expected.)

Correct me if I'm wrong, but I don't believe Jesus ever said, "I am coming quickly" in the gospels. It appears to be found only in Revelation, which many believe was addressed specifically to the 7 churches of Asia. So for them, He did come quickly, if 70 A.D. is the fulfillment of His coming. The emphasis of the gospels is to be ready at any time for His return. In fact Matthew 25:19 says: "Now after a LONG time the master of those slaves came and settled accounts with them."

dwight92070, I would take the "after a LONG time" to refer to the period from the end of exile to the time of Jesus, but of course, I could be wrong about that. Matthew 10:23, Matthew 16:28, Matthew 24:34, and Matthew 26:64 all make it sound like Jesus planned to return within a very short time period.

In the parable of the talents, remember the servant who received the one talent eventually was thrown into a place where there was weeping and gnashing of teeth. Therefore that must be the judgment on the last day, i.e. the 2nd coming of Christ. So I don't see that parable speaking of the long time between the exile and the first coming of Christ, as you do. Rather it appears to be speaking of the long time between His first coming and His second coming.
Also, I don't see any of the verses that you mentioned as saying that Jesus is coming quickly. Rather, I see them as all being fulfilled in that generation. The verse that says that all those things would happen in that generation, IMO, speaks of the destruction of Jerusalem, not the generation at the time of the 2nd coming.
So, again, Revelation appears to be the only place where we see words like "I am coming quickly", "the things which must soon take place", "the time is near". If Jesus' 2nd coming was truly not long after His first coming, then you would think we would see references to these kinds of phrases in the gospel, but we don't. Rather the HUGE event that DID happen in their generation was the destruction of Jerusalem, which obviously included the destruction of the temple, which shut down (or at least should have) the Old Testament rituals and laws once and for all. Jesus said that when they saw Jerusalem surrounded by armies, to flee to the mountains, which true believers did do and were saved.