God raised God from the dead?

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Re: God raised God from the dead?

Post by RND » Mon Dec 22, 2008 2:51 pm

Pierac wrote:I'm sorry RND, you are correct. I only saw the questions because I know you don't understand the verses you quoted. The problem is you did not question what should have been questioned.
That's mighty presumptuous on your part isn't it, to tell me what I know or in this case, "don't know?" Incredible. Crystal ball maybe. Peyote is a possibility.
For example Jesus did not say “I AM” in John 8:57 and your understanding of “elohiym” does not fit the Hebraic meaning.
Not only did Jesus say "I AM" He said it more than once.

John 18:5 They answered him, Jesus of Nazareth. Jesus saith unto them, I am [he]. And Judas also, which betrayed him, stood with them. 6 As soon then as he had said unto them, I am [he], they went backward, and fell to the ground.

Also, what is the "Hebraic meaning" of the word elohiym? Is there even such a thing.
You are reading the Hebrew scriptures through western eyes. Jesus and John were Jews, and you need to understand this when you comment on their statements.
When does being a "Jew" give someone a greater understanding of what "Hebrew" says? Moses wasn't a "Jew."
I should have said, do you want me to educate you.
More presumptuousness?
So let me apologize and ask again.

Can I move your post to my thread and educate you on their actual meaning within scripture. ;)
No, maybe you could "educate me" within the framework of the discussion. Are you suggesting Jesus never said He was God?
"All truth passes through three stages. First, it is ridiculed, second it is violently opposed, and third, it is accepted as self-evident." Arthur Schopenhauer, Philosopher, 1788-1860

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Re: God raised God from the dead?

Post by Pierac » Mon Dec 22, 2008 3:04 pm

RND wrote:
Pierac wrote:I'm sorry RND, you are correct. I only saw the questions because I know you don't understand the verses you quoted. The problem is you did not question what should have been questioned.
That's mighty presumptuous on your part isn't it, to tell me what I know or in this case, "don't know?" Incredible. Crystal ball maybe. Peyote is a possibility.
For example Jesus did not say “I AM” in John 8:57 and your understanding of “elohiym” does not fit the Hebraic meaning.
Not only did Jesus say "I AM" He said it more than once.

John 18:5 They answered him, Jesus of Nazareth. Jesus saith unto them, I am [he]. And Judas also, which betrayed him, stood with them. 6 As soon then as he had said unto them, I am [he], they went backward, and fell to the ground.

Also, what is the "Hebraic meaning" of the word elohiym? Is there even such a thing.
You are reading the Hebrew scriptures through western eyes. Jesus and John were Jews, and you need to understand this when you comment on their statements.
When does being a "Jew" give someone a greater understanding of what "Hebrew" says? Moses wasn't a "Jew."
I should have said, do you want me to educate you.
More presumptuousness?
So let me apologize and ask again.

Can I move your post to my thread and educate you on their actual meaning within scripture. ;)
No, maybe you could "educate me" within the framework of the discussion. Are you suggesting Jesus never said He was God?
Only presumptuous if I did not once believe as you, as I surely did. :oops:

So now that your finished do I have your permission to educate you on my thread? ;)

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Re: God raised God from the dead?

Post by RND » Mon Dec 22, 2008 3:49 pm

Pierac wrote:Only presumptuous if I did not once believe as you, as I surely did. :oops:
So now that you believe "differently" you're right and everyone else is wrong?
So now that your finished do I have your permission to educate you on my thread? ;)
I think you're presumptuousness is matched only by your arrogance. "...permission to educate you..." You're assuming I'm "uneducated" about a particular topic. You can educate me here in the framework of this topic.
"All truth passes through three stages. First, it is ridiculed, second it is violently opposed, and third, it is accepted as self-evident." Arthur Schopenhauer, Philosopher, 1788-1860

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Re: God raised God from the dead?

Post by Pierac » Mon Dec 22, 2008 4:24 pm

RND wrote:
Pierac wrote:Only presumptuous if I did not once believe as you, as I surely did. :oops:
So now that you believe "differently" you're right and everyone else is wrong?
So now that your finished do I have your permission to educate you on my thread? ;)
I think you're presumptuousness is matched only by your arrogance. "...permission to educate you..." You're assuming I'm "uneducated" about a particular topic. You can educate me here in the framework of this topic.

So be it...

Let's start in Exodus.

KJV Exo 3:14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.

Now we shall read the same verse from the Greek Septuagint

Septuagint Exo 3:14 και ειπεν ο θεος προς μωυσην [εγω ειμι ο ων] και ειπεν ουτως ερεις τοις υιοις ισραηλ [ο ων] απεσταλκεν με προς υμας
Note the two separate Greek words used for 'am'

Concordant Literal Version Exo 3:14 Then Elohim spoke to Moses: I shall come to be just as I am coming to be. And He said: Thus shall you say to the sons of Israel, I-Shall-Come-to-Be has sent me to you.
Now when translated literally you get a whole different look. What happened to the other I am's?

The Hebrew Bible uses the word (hâyâh H1961) in the place of "Am" which is a verb meaning to exist, to be.
Check the Strongs' number.

Clearly Jesus did not say (εγω ειμι ο ων) nor did he state (ο ων), in John 8:58. Jesus spoke the words (εγω ειμι) just like other people in the bible who are not God. So just what was Jesus saying?

I Am

But what about the great "I Am him" statement of Jesus? Especially that classic one in John 8:58 where Jesus says, "Truly, truly I say to you, before Abraham was born I am"? Surely here Jesus makes the same claim for himself that Jehovah God made back in Exodus 3 where the LORD says to Moses at the burning Bush "I Am Who I Am." Surely Jesus is claiming to be the I AM of the Old Testament as Trinitarian belief asserts?

This expression from Jesus' lips "I am" (Greek ego eimi) occurs throughout the Gospel of John and in no other text in John can it mean I AM, the God of the Old Testament.

Go back to John 4:25-26 for instance. The woman at the well said to Jesus, "I know that Messiah is coming (he who is called Christ); when that one comes, he will declare all things to us." And Jesus said to her, "I who speak with you am he." You will notice that in most Bibles that word he is in italics. This means that the translators have correctly supplied a word in English that is not in the Greek but that nevertheless makes the intended sense quite clear. Here Jesus says to the woman - in the context of her question about the Messiah - that he is the Messiah, the Christ. "I who speak to you am he." In the Greek it reads ego eimi. Jesus simply says I am he, the Messiah. Definitely not "I am is the one speaking to you!"

In John 9 Jesus heals the blind man. Is this really the beggar who used to sit groping in the dark? Some people said, "Yes, it's him all right." Other said, "No, he just looks like him." But the beggar says, " ego eimi!" And the translators have no problem writing, "I am the one." So why aren't the translators consistent? Why not capitalize what this man says as I AM? Because it is clear that he is not claiming to be the God of the Old Testament. Saying "I am" (ego eimi) does not make somebody God in the Bible!

What Jesus is saying is simply "Before Abraham was born, I am he," that is, "I am the Messiah."

Notice the context in John 8:56 where Jesus says, "Abraham rejoiced to see my day." By faith Abraham looked forward and saw the coming Messiah before he came in history. He believed the promise that God would send the Promised One. On the other hand these Jews did not believe that Jesus was their Messiah. They were claiming to be Abraham's descendents. Jesus said that this was impossible for they did not recognize him as their Messiah. But Jesus asserts that even before Abraham was born, he is the One who was always in God's plan. This Abraham believe and saw. The Messiah preexisted in God's plan and therefore in Abraham's believing mind, because he trusted the promise of God. Jesus positively did not say, before Abraham was, I was." Also, Jesus did not say, "Before Abraham was, I AM WHAT I AM."

The conclusion is inevitable. Jesus' claim "Before Abraham was born, I am he" is the straightforward claim that he is the long promised one, the Messiah, the One in question. Jesus is the Savior in God's promise even before Abraham was born.

The Jewish leaders were very well aware of what Jesus was saying about himself! Jesus Was not claiming to be God but the Son of God as Shown in John 19:6. They give the very reason they wanted Him dead!

John 19:6 When the chief priests therefore and officers saw him, they cried out, saying, Crucify him, crucify him. Pilate saith unto them, Take ye him, and crucify him: for I find no fault in him. 7 The Jews answered him, We have a law, and by our law he ought to die, because he made himself the Son of God.


Paul
Last edited by Pierac on Mon Dec 22, 2008 4:33 pm, edited 1 time in total.

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Re: God raised God from the dead?

Post by Pierac » Mon Dec 22, 2008 4:26 pm

RND wrote:
Pierac wrote:Only presumptuous if I did not once believe as you, as I surely did. :oops:
So now that you believe "differently" you're right and everyone else is wrong?
So now that your finished do I have your permission to educate you on my thread? ;)
I think you're presumptuousness is matched only by your arrogance. "...permission to educate you..." You're assuming I'm "uneducated" about a particular topic. You can educate me here in the framework of this topic.
Again...

RND I frequently hear people tell me that the Trinity exist in the O.T. because of the word Elohim. They happily tell me it's a plural word, and thus contains the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit all in one word. My studies however, have proven different.


Elohim

Elohim has been a very confusing word for many people. The word elohim is used various ways in Scripture. It is not only used to describe the Almighty, but also individual pagan gods and even mighty human beings. Elohim may be translated as God, god, angels, judges, or even a human being who stands as God's representative or agent. For example, the sons of Heth address Abraham as "a mighty prince," the word for "mighty" being elohim (Genesis 23:6). Some translations have Abraham here being called "Prince of God." Take another instance. In Exodus 4, the Lord tells Moses that he "shall be as God" (elohim) to his brother Aaron. Moses will have God's words in his mouth, and will stand as God's representative before Aaron.

Here is a case where an individual human is called elohim. Again in Exodus 7:1, the Lord says to Moses, "See, I make you God [elohim] to Pharaoh." No one dares to suggest that there is a plurality of persons within Moses because he is called elohim, that is, God's representative. The pagan god Dagon is also called elohim in the Hebrew Bible. The Philistines lamented that the God of Israel was harshly treating "Dagon our God [elohim]" (1 Sam. 5:7). Dagon was a single pagan deity. The same holds true for the single pagan god called Chemosh: "Do you not possess what Chemosh your god [elohim] gives you to possess?" (Jud. 11:24). The same for the single deity called Baal.

The Hebrew language has many examples of words which are plural but whose meaning is singular. In Genesis 23, Abraham's wife Sarah dies. The Hebrew text says, "the lives [plural] of Sarah were 127 years" (v. 1). Even the plural verb that accompanies the pronoun does not mean Sarah lived multiple lives. The Hebrews never taught reincarnation or plurality of personhood. Another example of this kind of anomaly in the Hebrew language is found in Genesis 43. After Joseph wept to see his brothers, we read that Joseph "washed his faces" (plural). This is another instance where in the Hebrew language the plural noun functions as a singular noun with a singular meaning, unless, of course, Joseph was a multi-faced human being! The same occurs in Genesis 16:8 where Hagar flees from "the faces" (plural) of her mistress Sarah. These are "anomalies" of the Hebrew language that are clearly understood by Hebrew scholars who rightly translate to a singular form in English.

The better explanation is that the Hebrews used a form of speech called "the plural of majesty." Put simply this means that someone whose position was warrant of dignity was spoken in this way as giving a sign of honor. The plural acted as a means of intensification: Elohim must rather be explained as an intensive plural, denoting greatness and majesty.

Whenever the word elohim refers to the God of Israel the Septuagint uses the singular and not the plural. From Genesis 1:1 consistently right through, this holds true. The Hebrews who translated their own scriptures into Greek simply had no idea that their God could be more than one individual, or a multiple personal Being! This is true too when we come to the New Testament. The New Testament nowhere hints at a plurality in the meaning of elohim when it reproduces references to the One God as ho theos, the One God.

Peace,
Paul

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Re: God raised God from the dead?

Post by Pierac » Mon Dec 22, 2008 4:32 pm

RND wrote:
Pierac wrote:Only presumptuous if I did not once believe as you, as I surely did. :oops:
So now that you believe "differently" you're right and everyone else is wrong?
So now that your finished do I have your permission to educate you on my thread? ;)
I think you're presumptuousness is matched only by your arrogance. "...permission to educate you..." You're assuming I'm "uneducated" about a particular topic. You can educate me here in the framework of this topic.
Just what did you mean by "us" and "our"?

US?

When God says "let us make man in our image" are we being taught that the Trinity of Father, Son and Holy Spirit are together creating human beings? How is it that when some read this statement their minds immediately think of "let us three"? The verse says nothing about God speaking to the Son or to the Holy Spirit. It simply says that God addressed someone else or some others than Himself. The "us" could refer to just one other, or to many others. But who is this someone or who are these others to whom God speaks here?

The Hebrews understood that God addressed His heavenly court, the angelic host and that He allowed them to watch his master-work in creating mankind unfold. This is quite reasonable, for there are other times when God involves the angels in His work. In Isaiah 6, God is seen in His Heavenly temple with the cherubs and all the heavenly court. There God asks, "Whom shall I send, and whom will go for us?" (v.8). It is certainly the case in 1 Kings 22:19-20 where the Lord is seen "sitting on his throne, and all the host of heaven standing by Him on His right and on His left" and he asked the heavenly court '"who will entice Ahab to go up and fall at Ramoth-Gilead?' And one said this while the other said that."

Let's return to Genesis 1:26. It is reasonable to suggest then that God in some way took the angels into confidence with Himself when he created Adam? This is collaborated in Job 38:4, 7 where God says that when He laid the foundations of the earth "all the sons of God shouted for joy." The sons of God are of course the angels as Job 1:6 and 2:1 confirm. God's own testimony is that the work of creation, "the heavens," "the earth" and "all things" were His work alone. This fact is established right away at the very outset of Genesis 1 where we are first introduced to God (elohim) the Creator. It is also clear that when he came to create Adam and Eve he told the angels to watch in awe. In this way the heavenly hosts participated as spectators of the miracle of man's creation.

Now if you're still not convinced that the God of creation is one God and not three in one, here is our Lord Jesus own commentary on Genesis 1:26. He will settle this issue for us.
In Matthew 19:4 and Mark 13:19 Jesus tells us

Mat 19:4 He answered, "Have you not read that he (God) who created them from the beginning made them male and female,

Mark 13:19 For in those days there will be such tribulation as has not been from the beginning of the creation that God (the Father) created until now, and never will be.

According to Jesus himself the creator God was not "We who made them from the beginning" but a single person He! Jesus does not include himself in the Genesis 1 creation of Adam, and He is also telling us that God (Father) Created all from the beginning.


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Re: God raised God from the dead?

Post by RND » Mon Dec 22, 2008 5:26 pm

Pierac wrote:Clearly Jesus did not say (εγω ειμι ο ων) nor did he state (ο ων), in John 8:58. Jesus spoke the words (εγω ειμι) just like other people in the bible who are not God. So just what was Jesus saying?
[/quote]

Interestingly enough the words "I AM" in Greek are the same words used for "I AM" in the Septuagint: εγω ειμι. Further of interest is the fact that "am" in the Greek carries the same meaning in the Hebrew "hayah" which is "to exist" (self-evident).

eimi = the first person singular present indicative; a prolonged form of a primary and defective verb; I exist (used only when emphatic):--am, have been, X it is I, was. See also ei* - ei* 1488, eihn - eien 1498, einai - einai 1511, eis kaq eiV - heis kath heis 1527, hn - en 2258, esomai - esomai 2071, esmen - esmen 2070, este - este 2075, esti - esti 2076, kerdoV - kerdos 2771, isqi - isthi 2468, w - o 5600.

In that usage is critical when used in context one can easily conclude that Jesus was saying "I exist."
I Am

But what about the great "I Am him" statement of Jesus? Especially that classic one in John 8:58 where Jesus says, "Truly, truly I say to you, before Abraham was born I am"? Surely here Jesus makes the same claim for himself that Jehovah God made back in Exodus 3 where the LORD says to Moses at the burning Bush "I Am Who I Am." Surely Jesus is claiming to be the I AM of the Old Testament as Trinitarian belief asserts?

This expression from Jesus' lips "I am" (Greek ego eimi) occurs throughout the Gospel of John and in no other text in John can it mean I AM, the God of the Old Testament.

Go back to John 4:25-26 for instance. The woman at the well said to Jesus, "I know that Messiah is coming (he who is called Christ); when that one comes, he will declare all things to us." And Jesus said to her, "I who speak with you am he." You will notice that in most Bibles that word he is in italics. This means that the translators have correctly supplied a word in English that is not in the Greek but that nevertheless makes the intended sense quite clear. Here Jesus says to the woman - in the context of her question about the Messiah - that he is the Messiah, the Christ. "I who speak to you am he." In the Greek it reads ego eimi. Jesus simply says I am he, the Messiah. Definitely not "I am is the one speaking to you!"
Nope. The "he" is not included in the Greek and the "he" was added for intended clarification. Further, it has always been known that the Messiah is God, and of God.
In John 9 Jesus heals the blind man. Is this really the beggar who used to sit groping in the dark? Some people said, "Yes, it's him all right." Other said, "No, he just looks like him." But the beggar says, " ego eimi!" And the translators have no problem writing, "I am the one." So why aren't the translators consistent? Why not capitalize what this man says as I AM? Because it is clear that he is not claiming to be the God of the Old Testament. Saying "I am" (ego eimi) does not make somebody God in the Bible!

What Jesus is saying is simply "Before Abraham was born, I am he," that is, "I am the Messiah."
Sorry, but that's a magical stretch of logic by simply removing the context of the scriptures. Was John confused that the readers of his Gospel would mistake a "blind man" as Messiah?
Notice the context in John 8:56 where Jesus says, "Abraham rejoiced to see my day." By faith Abraham looked forward and saw the coming Messiah before he came in history. He believed the promise that God would send the Promised One. On the other hand these Jews did not believe that Jesus was their Messiah. They were claiming to be Abraham's descendents. Jesus said that this was impossible for they did not recognize him as their Messiah. But Jesus asserts that even before Abraham was born, he is the One who was always in God's plan. This Abraham believe and saw. The Messiah preexisted in God's plan and therefore in Abraham's believing mind, because he trusted the promise of God. Jesus positively did not say, before Abraham was, I was." Also, Jesus did not say, "Before Abraham was, I AM WHAT I AM."

The conclusion is inevitable. Jesus' claim "Before Abraham was born, I am he" is the straightforward claim that he is the long promised one, the Messiah, the One in question. Jesus is the Savior in God's promise even before Abraham was born.

The Jewish leaders were very well aware of what Jesus was saying about himself! Jesus Was not claiming to be God but the Son of God as Shown in John 19:6. They give the very reason they wanted Him dead!

John 19:6 When the chief priests therefore and officers saw him, they cried out, saying, Crucify him, crucify him. Pilate saith unto them, Take ye him, and crucify him: for I find no fault in him. 7 The Jews answered him, We have a law, and by our law he ought to die, because he made himself the Son of God.
Based on the conversations I've seen from you regarding the self-existence of Jesus and your denying of Him as the logos I would say you have been influenced by some gnostic beliefs regarding Jesus, Christodelphian maybe.

In the Gospel of John, John is clear in showing us that Jesus was self-existent from the beginning of time. I am the bread of life, I am the light of the world, I am the way, and the truth, and the life.

in some of Jesus' I AM sayings, though some translators add "he" after "I am," the NAB correctly literally translates the phrase simply, "I AM." Due to the Greek vocabulary and construction of that phrase and its relation to Exo 3:14, the nuanced meaning is "I have timeless being that coincides with God" -- as compared with being a mere temporally created mortal. As Barclay Newman and Eugene Nida describe it in A Translator's Handbook on the Gospel of John (NY: UBS, 1980, page 124), "In those passages in John's Gospel where Jesus uses "I am" in an absolute sense, he is identifying himself with God."

The Greek pronoun translated "I" is ego, and the Greek verb translated "am" is eimi. Even without the pronoun, eimi is still translated "I am." Eimi means to be or to exist eternally or to have timeless being. In the Fourth Gospel, eimi is often contrasted with the Greek verb ginomai, which can also mean to be, but has more of an emphasis on to become or to be created or to happen, in a time-bound, temporal sense.

More than any other writing in the Greek New Testament, the Fourth Gospel can most appropriately be read with two layers of meaning, the historically literal and the symbolic. Though Jesus spoke both Aramaic and Greek, it is generally assumed that he addressed his disciples primarily in Aramaic. The Fourth Gospel, written in Koine Greek, was written with very obvious awareness of the symbolism and significance of its phrasing in the Koine Greek language. In comparison with the synoptic gospels (Mark, Matthew, and Luke), the Fourth Gospel may thought of as more of a painting of Jesus' life and teachings -- a painting that is subjectively intended to bring out and highlight the texture and underlying meaning of Jesus' life and teachings. The synoptic gospels are more like photographs that somewhat objectively record events but with less opportunity to interpret.

In each of the verses from the Fourth Gospel quoted below, Jesus is found using the Greek verb eimi. In some of the verses he uses the phrase Ego eimi, which directly corresponds with the wording in Exodus 3:14. There, where the KJV translates the Hebrew into English as, "I AM THAT I AM" and other versions translate "I AM WHO I AM," the Greek Septuagint text of the Old Testament (completed about 132 BC and used as "the Bible" by the First, Second, and Third Century Christians) translates the Hebrew into Greek as, "Ego eimi ho on", which would be translated into English as "I am the Being." Early Jewish Christians were certainly familiar with the Septuagint's epoch making pronouncement, "Ego eimi ho on," and likely would not have missed the symbolism of the Gospel of John's use of "Ego eimi," when spoken by Jesus in the Greek text of John.

Seen in the light of Genesis 1:26 and 27, where God created man in his "image" and "likeness," Jesus' words representing the "I am" take on very significant meaning. The Fourth Gospel's insights into the character and message of Jesus shed great light on the entire New Testament, where Christ Jesus is several times referred to as the "image" or "likeness" of God in 2Co 4:4, Col 1:15, and Heb 1:3 -- and where through Christ "we" also are referred to as the image of God in Rom 8:29, 1Co 15:49, 2Co 3:18, and Col 3:10.
"All truth passes through three stages. First, it is ridiculed, second it is violently opposed, and third, it is accepted as self-evident." Arthur Schopenhauer, Philosopher, 1788-1860

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Re: God raised God from the dead?

Post by RND » Mon Dec 22, 2008 5:31 pm

Pierac wrote:RND I frequently hear people tell me that the Trinity exist in the O.T. because of the word Elohim. They happily tell me it's a plural word, and thus contains the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit all in one word. My studies however, have proven different.
Evidently.

I never said the "Trinity" is represented in the word "elohiym" you again just made that assumption. And yet the "Godhead" is expressly evident in Genesis 1.
"All truth passes through three stages. First, it is ridiculed, second it is violently opposed, and third, it is accepted as self-evident." Arthur Schopenhauer, Philosopher, 1788-1860

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Re: God raised God from the dead?

Post by RND » Mon Dec 22, 2008 6:04 pm

Pierac wrote:Just what did you mean by "us" and "our"?

US?

When God says "let us make man in our image" are we being taught that the Trinity of Father, Son and Holy Spirit are together creating human beings? How is it that when some read this statement their minds immediately think of "let us three"? The verse says nothing about God speaking to the Son or to the Holy Spirit. It simply says that God addressed someone else or some others than Himself. The "us" could refer to just one other, or to many others. But who is this someone or who are these others to whom God speaks here?
The "us" and "our" are expressed in relation to the usage of the "plural" elohiym that were speaking and in that there really is no Hebrew "us" or "our."

The phrase "Let us make..." is the singular Hebrew word `asah which has a whole complex litany of usage and meaning in the Hebrew.
The Hebrews understood that God addressed His heavenly court, the angelic host and that He allowed them to watch his master-work in creating mankind unfold. This is quite reasonable, for there are other times when God involves the angels in His work. In Isaiah 6, God is seen in His Heavenly temple with the cherubs and all the heavenly court. There God asks, "Whom shall I send, and whom will go for us?" (v.8). It is certainly the case in 1 Kings 22:19-20 where the Lord is seen "sitting on his throne, and all the host of heaven standing by Him on His right and on His left" and he asked the heavenly court '"who will entice Ahab to go up and fall at Ramoth-Gilead?' And one said this while the other said that."

Let's return to Genesis 1:26. It is reasonable to suggest then that God in some way took the angels into confidence with Himself when he created Adam? This is collaborated in Job 38:4, 7 where God says that when He laid the foundations of the earth "all the sons of God shouted for joy." The sons of God are of course the angels as Job 1:6 and 2:1 confirm. God's own testimony is that the work of creation, "the heavens," "the earth" and "all things" were His work alone. This fact is established right away at the very outset of Genesis 1 where we are first introduced to God (elohim) the Creator. It is also clear that when he came to create Adam and Eve he told the angels to watch in awe. In this way the heavenly hosts participated as spectators of the miracle of man's creation.
Messianic Jews would have a difference of opinion with you especially considered the plurality of the Shema. Jesus chided Nicodemus, a Master of Israel, for not understanding the "plurality" of the Godhead. In that sense we can obviously see that there is more than "one" Hebrew understanding of Genesis 1:26.

I would research their understanding further to hopefully gain a different perspective that that of just orthodox Hebrews.
Now if you're still not convinced that the God of creation is one God and not three in one, here is our Lord Jesus own commentary on Genesis 1:26. He will settle this issue for us.
In Matthew 19:4 and Mark 13:19 Jesus tells us

Mat 19:4 He answered, "Have you not read that he (God) who created them from the beginning made them male and female,

Mark 13:19 For in those days there will be such tribulation as has not been from the beginning of the creation that God (the Father) created until now, and never will be.

According to Jesus himself the creator God was not "We who made them from the beginning" but a single person He! Jesus does not include himself in the Genesis 1 creation of Adam, and He is also telling us that God (Father) Created all from the beginning.
Why would you think Jesus wasn't speaking of Himself in the third person with respect to the scripture He is noting? Also, did you miss that "he" is not included in the ordinal text in Mathew 19:4? Interesting in that the article representing "he" is almost always used in connection with the "plural."

Something to think about.
"All truth passes through three stages. First, it is ridiculed, second it is violently opposed, and third, it is accepted as self-evident." Arthur Schopenhauer, Philosopher, 1788-1860

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Pierac
Posts: 140
Joined: Fri Dec 05, 2008 10:43 pm

Re: God raised God from the dead?

Post by Pierac » Mon Dec 22, 2008 6:08 pm

RND wrote:
Pierac wrote:Clearly Jesus did not say (εγω ειμι ο ων) nor did he state (ο ων), in John 8:58. Jesus spoke the words (εγω ειμι) just like other people in the bible who are not God. So just what was Jesus saying?
Interestingly enough the words "I AM" in Greek are the same words used for "I AM" in the Septuagint: εγω ειμι. Further of interest is the fact that "am" in the Greek carries the same meaning in the Hebrew "hayah" which is "to exist" (self-evident).

eimi = the first person singular present indicative; a prolonged form of a primary and defective verb; I exist (used only when emphatic):--am, have been, X it is I, was. See also ei* - ei* 1488, eihn - eien 1498, einai - einai 1511, eis kaq eiV - heis kath heis 1527, hn - en 2258, esomai - esomai 2071, esmen - esmen 2070, este - este 2075, esti - esti 2076, kerdoV - kerdos 2771, isqi - isthi 2468, w - o 5600.

In that usage is critical when used in context one can easily conclude that Jesus was saying "I exist."
I Am

But what about the great "I Am him" statement of Jesus? Especially that classic one in John 8:58 where Jesus says, "Truly, truly I say to you, before Abraham was born I am"? Surely here Jesus makes the same claim for himself that Jehovah God made back in Exodus 3 where the LORD says to Moses at the burning Bush "I Am Who I Am." Surely Jesus is claiming to be the I AM of the Old Testament as Trinitarian belief asserts?

This expression from Jesus' lips "I am" (Greek ego eimi) occurs throughout the Gospel of John and in no other text in John can it mean I AM, the God of the Old Testament.

Go back to John 4:25-26 for instance. The woman at the well said to Jesus, "I know that Messiah is coming (he who is called Christ); when that one comes, he will declare all things to us." And Jesus said to her, "I who speak with you am he." You will notice that in most Bibles that word he is in italics. This means that the translators have correctly supplied a word in English that is not in the Greek but that nevertheless makes the intended sense quite clear. Here Jesus says to the woman - in the context of her question about the Messiah - that he is the Messiah, the Christ. "I who speak to you am he." In the Greek it reads ego eimi. Jesus simply says I am he, the Messiah. Definitely not "I am is the one speaking to you!"
Nope. The "he" is not included in the Greek and the "he" was added for intended clarification. Further, it has always been known that the Messiah is God, and of God.
In John 9 Jesus heals the blind man. Is this really the beggar who used to sit groping in the dark? Some people said, "Yes, it's him all right." Other said, "No, he just looks like him." But the beggar says, " ego eimi!" And the translators have no problem writing, "I am the one." So why aren't the translators consistent? Why not capitalize what this man says as I AM? Because it is clear that he is not claiming to be the God of the Old Testament. Saying "I am" (ego eimi) does not make somebody God in the Bible!

What Jesus is saying is simply "Before Abraham was born, I am he," that is, "I am the Messiah."
Sorry, but that's a magical stretch of logic by simply removing the context of the scriptures. Was John confused that the readers of his Gospel would mistake a "blind man" as Messiah?

Joh 9:8 Therefore the neighbors, and those who previously saw him as a beggar, were saying, "Is not this the one who used to sit and beg?" 9 Others were saying, "This is he," still others were saying, "No, but he is like him." He kept saying, "I AM.”

So RND according to your logic and understanding of "ego eimi". Your saying the blind man was God. Because he spoke the same words as God in Exo… "ego eimi" or I AM.

Is this why the Pharisees threw him out too ? :roll:

You lack Context, use context. Don't try to force it to mean what you want it to say, then you won't get so upset when a blind beggar says "ego eimi", or according to your translators "I AM" ;)

Paul

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