Scattering of Israel
Posted: Sun Apr 03, 2016 2:22 pm
Scripture has many verses talking about the scattering of Israel to the nations (note the plural). My dispensationalist Sunday school teacher claims that this did not happen until 135 AD, and thus, in his reasoning, this scattering does not apply to the Babylonian exile since the captives were exiled to one nation, namely Babylon. Reasoning further, he claims that God's promise to restore them from these various nations is to be fulfilled in the future--not something that was accomplished when some of the exiles returned to their homeland. His argument seems to ignore the exile of the Northern Kingdom (Israel) into Assyria, and in Jeremiah we read of Jews fleeing to Egypt. Any comments on this? In the wilderness God threatened His people with exile if they failed to obey and live by the Mosaic Covenant, and He talked about scattering them to the nations (plural). If indeed He didn't scatter them to the nations (plural), then all this would be an empty threat to that generation.
How would you counter the dispensational reasoning here?
How would you counter the dispensational reasoning here?