I read something recently where the point was being made that that fact that Rev. 20:4 mentions "beheading" of martyrs that this necessarily points to radical Islam, as beheading is their preferred method of execution, while it was not really a method used by anyone else; even ancient Rome did not really use beheading for Christians in most cases.And I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded because of their testimony about Jesus and because of the word of God. They had not worshiped the beast or its image and had not received its mark on their foreheads or their hands.
So I guess I have a few questions-
In Rev. 20 what nationality is doing the beheading?
I assume the Greek word used really means beheading, but does anyone know for sure?
If beheading was not a common method of execution, why does Rev 20:4 mention it?
Could this be referencing present day radical Islam? Is there any possible reference in scripture to the rise of Islam?
TK