What is sexual immorality

[morbo3000]

I am in the middle of a deep dive into understanding what the bible means when it uses the phrase "sexual immorality."

The term has been used to mean pre marital sex, adultery, masturbation, pornography, promiscuity, bestiality, homosexuality, oral sex, anal sex, pedophilia, incest... In sure the list could go on.

The question is, which of those are clearly connected to the term and how?

I don't want to get too hung up on this part, but one component I want to ferret out is pre marital sex and virginity. I have teens and pre teens, and I want to make sure that as I am teaching them I am being biblical, rather than trusting the traditional status quo beliefs. There is some question about the correct definition of fornication, so help with that is appreciated.

Thanks!

[dwilkins]

A while back, on a dare, I tried to look up specifically how the Bible banned what in our culture would be young adult premarital sex (say late teens). It was a surprisingly frustrating affair because sex outside of marriage was fairly generically referred to as harlotry, which brings into question whether these passages were referring to prostitution or just consensual sex between single people. I'm still comfortable that the Bible takes a stance against extra-marital sex, but it's a harder case to make than you would think.

Doug

[steve7150]

According to dictionary.com fornication is voluntary sexual intercourse outside marriage. I don't know the greek so i'm assuming the bible translates the greek word into fornication accurately and if it does then this definition seems to cover a wide swath.

[morbo3000]

The problem is that the Greek word "porneia" is ambiguous. The English translation "fornication" is considered inaccurate by even conservative scholars, rendering the english dictionary definition for "fornication" an inaccurate definition for porneia.

The most accurate translation seems to be "sexual immorality." Unfortunately, that term itself is ambiguous. The meaning has to come from the context.

As dwilkins has said, it is hard to make the case for premarital sex being being included. I searched the net for help, and the arguments for it being included are usually circular.

I think paidon once said that there are instances of the use of the word in Greek texts that aren't from the bible that may help with the definition. Can anyone point me to research?

[mattrose]

Obviously on at least some of these issues we'll be applying principles rather than proof-texts.

As for pre-marital sex... if all that was usually meant by that term was an engaged couple becoming sexually active before their wedding night... the stakes would be a bit lower. But usually what is meant is not PRE-MARITAL sex at all, but sex with no intention of marriage whatsoever. That sort of activity clearly goes against the biblical principles involved.

[steve]

This is a case where our resident Greek scholar, kaufmannphillips , may be able to help us out. I will, however, as a not-Greek-scholar, take a stab at it.

The usage of porneia in the New Testament is fairly broad, so that it is used when referring to incest, in 1 Corinthians 5:1 and for homosexual sex, in Jude 7. It seems likely (though contested by many) that porneia, in Matthew 5:32 and 19:9, refers to adultery. These activities would fall within the range of porneia, along with others. Paul's discussion of porneia, in 1 Corinthians 6, seems to have prostitution in view—and some scholars would argue that its primary usage in the New Testament would be with reference to cult prostitution associated with idolatrous worship. Ordinary sexual activity between unmarried, heterosexual pairs is not singled out as belonging to the porneia category, but if such activity was considered immoral, then it too would seemingly come under that big umbrella.

In deciding what is included under sexual immorality, one would have to determine how the moral norms of human sexual intercourse were defined in Jesus' day and language. Paul seems to forbid prostitution, not because it is mercenary (rather than loving), but because it involves the participants in a "one flesh" union (1 Cor.6:15-16). The objection to extramatrital union is not based upon the fear that sex creates a premature emotional attachment, which might lead to emotional devastation were the relationship later to disintegrate, since Paul could not object to prostitution on this basis. Paul objected to prostitution on the basis that such a "one flesh" status belongs uniquely to marriage (Gen.2:24), where the union is not merely sexual, but also covenantal, and intended to be part of the creation of a family producing offspring (Mal.2:14-15). Thus, Paul apparently sees any sex outside marriage to be the inappropriate enjoyment of a life-joining activity without a corresponding life-joining intention.

Premarital sex may be specifically in mind when Paul, discussing porneia in 1 Thessalonians 4:3-6, exhorts that no one (masculine) should "defraud his brother (masculine)" in this matter. This raises the question of how one man might "defraud" his brother in the area of fornication. It almost certainly does not have homosexuality in view, though, I suppose, this could be another allusion to adultery, whereby a man, by sleeping with another man's wife, defrauds or cheats his brother (her husband). However, if Paul had adultery in mind, we might expect this sin to be spoken of, not so much as the cheating of a brother, but (as Joseph viewed it) as sinning "against God" (Gen.39:9).

Alternatively, some have suggested that what Paul has in mind is a man sleeping with a single woman whom he does not intend to marry, but who will probably marry someone else, eventually. On this view, the fornicator is seen as defrauding her future husband, by taking the virginity and innocence from a girl who should have presented herself with these intact upon later marrying her real husband. But would not Paul refer to this, too, as sinning "against God"? Possibly not—though his failure to make this association does not mean that he would not have viewed it as such. Since the law of Moses did not specifically forbid premarital sex, Paul might have refrained from using terms that suggest violation of God's law in favor of arguments relating the matter to the duty of brotherly love (1 Thess.4:9).

Though the Old Testament does not legislate against premarital sex explicitly, there are indicators there of God's attitude about it (the same may be said of polygamy). In the law, an unmarried couple who succumbed to sexual temptation were required to marry (Ex.22:16)—strongly indicating that God did not approve of sex which was unrelated to marriage. Likewise, a woman who deceived her bridegroom into thinking she was a virgin, but who had secretly committed premarital sex, was severely punished (Deut.22:14ff)—not, apparently, for the act of premarital sex, but for not having married the man with whom she had engaged in it, and having concealed this from her (later) real husband. Likewise, prostitution was forbidden (Lev.19:29). It is not likely that it is merely the mercenary aspects of this practice that were found objectionable.

There are dangers in promiscuity—emotional, spiritual, and hygienic—known to God long before they were discovered by man. It is unlikely, in view of such data, that premarital sex (perhaps with the exception of that between betrothed couples), was viewed as morally normative. I believe I once read William Barclay saying that, in Galilee, betrothed couples were permitted to cohabitate, but in Judea they were expected to refrain until marriage (or vice versa). I have not seen this confirmed by other authorities. In any case, I would expect any sensible counsellor to advise against such behavior prior to marriage, even where there is the expectation of marriage. What's the hurry? "Love is patient."

[Singalphile]

I was talking with a friend about this issue ("pre-marital" sex primarily) recently. He brought up how the long list of forbidden sexual activity, in Lev 18 did not include regular sex outside of marriage, which would surely be far more common than everything that is in that list. But we concluded the same as the last few posts here, though. The principle is clear enough, especially in the NT. We did not bring up I Thess. 4:3-6 and Lev. 19:29, which are interesting.

I would add a little amendment to what Steve just wrote above. In Exodus 22:16, marriage was not required if the single woman's father refused to allow it, but the single man had to pay the dowry regardless.

[Singalphile]

What about the the whole basis for sexual morality?

God is merciful and He wants us to be merciful. He is patient and He wants us to be patient. He is faithful and He wants us to be faithful. And so on. But God is not chaste, right? It doesn't seem that any particular sexual behavior is characteristic of God. He could just as well have designed us in other ways.

So is this an area, among others, where God simply wants us to learn to control ourselves and obey Him? Is there any other lesson to it?

I don't think that there's much question about what God wants from us and I'm sure it's what is best for us, but it's still a bit of a strange thing. Certainly, sexual (im)morality is a unique matter (1 Cor 6:18), if nothing else.

[Paidion]

Let's first consider the persons who participate in porneia. A woman who so participates is called a "pornā". A man who so participates is called a "pornos".

The King James Version translates the word "pornā" as "harlot" 7 times and as "whore" 5 times. The NKJV translates it as "harlot" all 12 times. I believe these translations to be correct. The word means "prostitute".

The King James Version translates "pornos" as "whoremonger" (that is a consorter with prostitutes) 5 times and as "fornicator" 4 times. I think these two words are synonymous.
The King James tranlates "porneia" as "fornication" for every occurence of the word.

The word "fornication" is derived from the Latin "fornix" which basically means "arch" but which was later used as a euphamism for "brothel".

So I conclude that the basic meaning of "porneia" or "fornication" indicates the practice of prostitution for women, and consorting with prostitutes for men.

There is one place in the New Testament where it seems the word is used in a wider sense. In 1 Corinthians 5:1, Paul used the word "porneia" in connection with the man who had his father's wife. I can think of only one way in which this could be an instance of the usual sense, and that would be if the father's wife had been a prostitute at the time.

[Paidion]

I just read Steve's post. I hadn't previously noticed the use of "porneia" in Jude 7.