It was interesting, interacting with a few different commentaries and listening to Steve's verse by verse commentary, to discover that Steve had an alternative interpretation of 2 Kings 3:27
2 Kings 3:27
All the commentators I read agreed that the King of Moab sacrificed his own son
But Steve suggested that he sacrificed the son of the King of Edom
Steve's reasoning?
1. The king of Edom is mentioned in the previous verse and could be an antecedent for the 'his'
2. Amos 2:1-2 might be referencing this act
Amos 2:1-2
3. It makes better sense of why people became furious with Israel (Edom & Judah were no longer happy to be in alliance since it had produced this ugly situation).
I might add that 1 Kings 22:47 makes a statement that, at the end of Jehoshaphat's reign, there was no longer a king in Edom at all (perhaps the sacrificed son was his only son?). This could be further evidence for Steve's theory.
In any case, I was wondering if Steve had thought about this any more (I don't know how old the tape was). If others feel like they have insight into the passage, you are welcome to share as well!
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