The Foreknowledge of God

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darinhouston
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Re: The Foreknowledge of God

Post by darinhouston » Mon Dec 22, 2008 10:05 pm

Troy wrote:Actually Peirac, one is either a Calvinistic Universalist or an Arminian Universalist (not too far from Paidion's theology).
Maybe I'm not familiar enough with Universalist thought, but I can't imagine how one could be both a Calvinist and a Universalist considering the Calvinist view of unconditional election and limited atonement.

Pierac
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Re: The Foreknowledge of God

Post by Pierac » Mon Dec 22, 2008 11:17 pm

Troy wrote:Actually Peirac, one is either a Calvinistic Universalist or an Arminian Universalist (not too far from Paidion's theology). As for John 1:13, I see nothing different in your handling of this text than I have seen with Calvinist's handling of this text. This gives me the impression that you believe this text shows that one must be born again to have faith in God, rather than what the text actually shows, namely, being born of God and becoming children of God comes through faith. I have demonstrated this on my post on this verse, and you have not even began to engage with it. If you not to do so, that is your prerogative but please don't ever attempt to use this verse at this forum to support your view, at least not until you interact with what I have submitted.
Troy the real question is who's faith? Is it faith in the Christ or faith of the Christ? Check your translations.

Net Eph 1:11 In Christ28 we too have been claimed as God's own possession,29 since we were predestined according to the one purpose of him who accomplishes all things according to the counsel of his will

CEV Eph 1:11 God always does what he plans, and that's why he appointed Christ to choose us.

Net Commentary:
Eph 1:11

28 tn Grk "in whom," as a continuation of the previous verse.

29 tn Grk "we were appointed by lot." The notion of the verb κληρόω (klēroō) in the OT was to "appoint a portion by lot" (the more frequent cognate verb κληρονομέω [klēronomeō] meant "obtain a portion by lot"). In the passive, as here, the idea is that "we were appointed [as a portion] by lot" (BDAG 548 s.v. κληρόω 1). The words "God's own" have been supplied in the translation to clarify this sense of the verb. An alternative interpretation is that believers receive a portion as an inheritance: "In Christ we too have been appointed a portion of the inheritance." See H. W. Hoehner, Ephesians, 226-27, for discussion on this interpretive issue.

sn God's own possession. Although God is not mentioned explicitly in the Greek text, it is clear from the context that he has chosen believers for himself. Just as with the nation Israel, the church is God's chosen portion or possession (cf. Deu_32:8-9).

;)
Troy wrote:Furthermore, please tell me on what basis it is that you say 95% of humans that have ever lived have not had access to the Scriptures I read daily? There is no doubt that this was true before the Scriptures existed (in fact, this would be a no brainer). If you were speaking of the New Testament alone, would you still say it is 95%, and would you say 95% of the world in the last 2000 years have not had access to the Scriptures? If so, what is the grounds for granting as much as 95%? How do you know that it is indeed 95% rather than, say, 60% or 30%? What about today? What is the percentage of the people today?
Troy, the whole world did not live in Isreal even in the O.T. times, much less the New! What about the people in the whole of Africa not just the northern tip, South America, Northern Europe, North America, Aisa? How would you like to have been alive in present day Arizona in 200 A.D. ? Where are your scriptures? It has been calucated that 95% of all humans that have ever lived, have not had access to either the O.T. or New! I don't have the actual data, but would even bringing it to down to say 75% make it any better? The fact is billions of Humans have lived outside the reach of Scripture. How would you feel if you were one of the ones left outside?

Pierac
Posts: 140
Joined: Fri Dec 05, 2008 10:43 pm

Re: The Foreknowledge of God

Post by Pierac » Mon Dec 22, 2008 11:28 pm

Troy the real question you should be asking is ... What is the kingdom of God? Jesus said his purpose was to preach this! Do you know what he preached?

Luke 4:43 But He said to them, "I must preach the kingdom of God to the other cities also, for I was sent for this purpose."


Paul

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