Verse that refutes both Calvinism and Open Theism at once?

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RickC
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Re: Verse that refutes both Calvinism and Open Theism at once?

Post by RickC » Tue Aug 10, 2010 4:58 pm

Hello Daniel - You wrote:Hi RickC,

Just a question before I run out, while admitting here to be so scheduled-up this morning as to not have read through all your comments (though, of course, I hope to by later today). But could you define for all of us what "semantic settledness" means in ordinary layman terms, that readers here would naturally agree to? Or is this "definition" the problem? I'm not actually sure (yet) that this request of mine can be answered by you to everyone's satisfaction, since I have come to believe (over the last year or so, in general) that what divides people in disputes is in the end fundamental disagreements about what words and terms actually mean. I can elaborate with an example of why I think so, if you wish. Or I might just go ahead and explain what I mean, as soon as I get the chance to return to commenting.

Thanks in the meantime for attempting a more or less universally-granted definition of "semantic settledness" in layman terms. And yet I remain concerned that even if you paraphrase this term in simpler language, the dispute may not disappear.
This brief definition (copied from above) is Alan Rhoda's -
Future Semantic Settledness (FSS):
There exists a set of truths that is both maximal and consistent and completely characterizes one unique future.

I googled and came across Tom Belt on Facebook.
From about 1/3rd down the page (it's a pretty good read) -
where Tom Best wrote:Now, to say the future is ‘semantically settled’ (SS) is just to say that the truth about how the future works itself out can be expressed exhaustively in terms of what ‘will’ and what ‘will not’ occur (will/will not express semantic settledness).
But you wanted me to define it (and I don't really get into philosophy all that often)!
Semantics: Derived from the Greek word σημαντικός (semantikos), "significant", from σημαίνω (semaino), "to signify, to indicate" and that from σῆμα (sema), "sign, mark, token" (source Wikipedia).

Semantic Settledness (SS): There are truths that signify what will and will not happen.

I like Belt's definition better! :D

DanielGracely
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Re: Verse that refutes both Calvinism and Open Theism at once?

Post by DanielGracely » Tue Aug 10, 2010 8:22 pm

Hi Steve7150,

It seems like you missed my point altogether. I myself stated that Ex. 12:40 and 41 speak of Israel's SOJOURN in the land of Egypt. But I also said that Gen. 15:13 states that Abraham's descendents would be AFFLICTED 400 years, and that to be AFFLICTED is not synonymous to SOJOURNING. Nowhere in Gen 15:13 does it say that Abraham's descendents would SOJOURN for 400 years. The natural reconciliation between the texts is to understand that Abraham's descendents SOJOURNED for 430 years, in which they were AFFLICTED during the latter 400. Even Stephen says they were afflicted four hundred years!

I see that your quotation of me automatically seems to drop italics, so my need here to 'shout' here with All Caps.

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Re: Verse that refutes both Calvinism and Open Theism at once?

Post by DanielGracely » Tue Aug 10, 2010 9:48 pm

Hi RickC,
RE: GOD SAYING TO ABRAHAM, "NOW I KNOW..."

Thanks for the attempt to make things clearer about “semantic settledness.” It continues to appear to me (but I suppose not you) that Open Theism seeks to revise the common understanding of “will/ will not” in relation to the future from what has traditionally been understood for centuries.

But my main point here is not that. It is to ask you a question after having slogged through, mostly for your sake only (to show I cared enough to hear Boyd’s view, so that we might dialog more effectively) all 13 parts of Boyd's presentation on Youtube. Some of the questions asked from the audience (from midway into part 8 or so) I didn’t hear, but I could hear Boyd’s responses from the microphone.

Here, then, is my question:

Since, according to Open Theism, God cannot know future human choice, how does God know human choice in the indivisible moment which is the present, since he cannot anticipate it and therefore must discover it (given the “before and after” and reactive nature of God, which is an ongoing assumption of Boyd’s throughout much of his lecture)?

One note in passing: imo Boyd equivocates on a definition of time, when saying he would not want to say that God is in our construct of time (but by what right, I ask, does he implicitly claim that time is our perspective or our construct?), yet (says Boyd) God must be in a sequence of “before and after.”

So again, if, according to Open Theism, God cannot know our choice until it is made, then He must come to know it afterward, i.e., subsequent to the choice. And indeed, if God cannot know our choice until it is made, neither can He know it AS it happens, but only afterward. Therefore God, if He has no foreknowledge (as Open Theists claim), cannot ever state that He knows (present tense) with certainty what de facto anyone thinks in the present indivisible instant, since He can only be reactive to human choice after it is made, that is, after it is past. So then, God can know His own choice in the now, but no one elses. And so God can never say of anyone's thought with certainty, "NOW I know..."

This leads to the natural question how God can repeatedly state by way of verbs in the present indicative in the N.T. that the one who believes (present tense) has (present tense) eternal life? For how, according to Open Theism, can God make 'since this, therefore that' statements about anyone’s choice in the present-now indivisible moment, unless it be by foreknowledge?

In my view, Boyd defines time (Hegelically) dialectical to serve his needs in the moment, either to say (1) that God is reactive to our choice, or (2) that God can know the present choice in the now and not have to discover it, an idea which imo contradicts his first premise, which supports what elsewhere he calls the “give and take” and “before and after” reality in any God / human relationship.

I rather expect any ‘resolution’ to my question will be along Barthian lines (i.e., the Hegelian doublethink ["No idea of man's, regardless of breadth or width of consideration, approximates God's], and it almost seemed as if Boyd was not fully at ease in a discussion about time at the very end of his lecture (part 13). I suspect this is because the logical problems sequential time poses to Open Theism cannot really be solved logically, i.e., along the method that so much of Boyd's argument rests upon, and which he uses to make his opponents' arguments appear ridiculous. Thus the burden on Boyd, since for him to speak of a "before," a "now" and a "future," obviously implies a God in sequential time.

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RickC
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Re: Verse that refutes both Calvinism and Open Theism at once?

Post by RickC » Wed Aug 11, 2010 5:51 am

Daniel -

I sent you a private message.

Anyone else -

I'm not interested in debating about OFV, nor defending Greg Boyd (to whatever degree I may, or may not, agree with him).

But thanks for the interaction! :)

DanielGracely
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Re: Verse that refutes both Calvinism and Open Theism at once?

Post by DanielGracely » Wed Aug 11, 2010 7:05 am

Hi Rick,

Likewise, thank you for the interaction. :)

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Re: Verse that refutes both Calvinism and Open Theism at once?

Post by steve7150 » Wed Aug 11, 2010 12:13 pm

It seems like you missed my point altogether. I myself stated that Ex. 12:40 and 41 speak of Israel's SOJOURN in the land of Egypt. But I also said that Gen. 15:13 states that Abraham's descendents would be AFFLICTED 400 years, and that to be AFFLICTED is not synonymous to SOJOURNING. Nowhere in Gen 15:13 does it say that Abraham's descendents would SOJOURN for 400 years





Hi Daniel,
Your explanation may be correct but some translations don't use this to reconcile the difference, they say it's a rounding difference.
In the ESV version it says "Know for certain that your offspring will be sojourners in a land that is not theirs and will be servants there, and they will be afflicted for four hundred years" Gen 15.13
The explanation given is "a round number for the time spent in Egypt." In this ESV version edited by Sproul it does'nt distinguish the difference nor does my NIV translation. In fact the ESV lumps affliction/sojourning together. As i said your explanation is plausable yet many translations don't rely on it.

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Re: Verse that refutes both Calvinism and Open Theism at once?

Post by DanielGracely » Wed Aug 11, 2010 1:34 pm

RE: A FINAL THOUGHT ABOUT OPEN THEISM’S METHOD

Last week, during a number of my posts on this thread, I never did mention imo the major example why the Open Theistic method is inconsistent. In winding down my comments here, I wish to show that now.

The example in short: Open Theism relies on LOGIC to argue that God’s change of mind, or regret, etc., shows a partially open future, yet Open Theism fails to apply this same logic to every crisis in their theology. The result for them is two, not one, hermeneutical approaches. In other words, there is no final consistency in their method.

Now, THE example that comes to mind of an illogicality which Open Theism holds, is the same logical problem that has haunted Christian theologians down the centuries. Namely, Number must be infinite if God has existed in eternity past, yet Number cannot be infinite or else change cannot occur.

For example, Zeno’s paradox shows that, logically, there can be no change, no “before and after,” if Number is infinite as a unit of time. It may be expressed thus: suppose a football player catches a kickoff deep into his own end zone yet runs all the way for a touchdown (at a constant speed for the 100 yards between goal lines). If he covers the first 50 yards in a time of 1/2x, then he will cover the next 25 yards in 1/4x, and so forth. But expressed this way, he never reaches the opponent’s goal line at all. This is because the infinite number series, 1/2x + 1/4x + 1/8x, + 1/16x, etc., never quite adds up to the number 1 (i.e., the opponent’s goal line). Yet obviously in the real world football players, soccer players, sprinters, etc., can run 100 yards. And so despite numbered infinity (implied in God’s eternal past), we realize that number must ALSO be finite, or else we could not say that change in movement can occur. Further, this problem posed by the infinite number series can be taken back to describe just the very first step of the sprint, or half the first step, etc., until arguably no movement theoretically occurs. Here, then, by all appearances is a hopeless predicament in logic. This serves as one example why the German philosopher, Godel, was able to prove that every ideology and philosophy and religion is unable to be logically consistent in all of its points, and that therefore some of its premises must be taken as axiomatic.

Now, no Evangelical Christian theologian has ever solved this problem of God’s infinite past existing alongside change. Yet we must maintain that change is real and has always been possible in the past, and, further, that morality is based upon it. That is, the Three Persons of the Godhead have always had the potential to disagree among themselves, as, indeed, Christ showed in His rhetorical question to Peter, that He (Christ) could call for 12 legions of angels and be granted this request from His Father (despite His Father's wishes), even though His (Christ’s) action would mean the breaking of Scripture. This potential for change—the choices of One of the Three to be selfish or selfless in relation to the Other Two Persons is, I believe, the major proof of time—since choices are made instant by instant, in this case, by each of the Three Persons of the Godhead to remain in unanimous agreement about Intention (Choice).

So again, to review, Christian theologians accept antinomy, i.e. that God has existed in the infinite past, yet has done so amidst choices that have occurred in Time. (Boyd is right about potential Change being biblical, when he describes the Classical Christian view of God’s immutability as one derived from a Helenistic, not biblical, concept of Perfection remaining unchangeable if it is to remain Perfection.) Thus Time imo proceeds as an attribute of God in the same way God's speech (which brought the worlds into existence) is from Him without being part of Him, and happens sequentially instant by instant. Now, Open Theists, too, accept the antinomy mentioned in the preceding paragraph, including Greg Boyd, who in the 13th (and last part) of a youtube series on the sovereignty of God, has to make subtle but concessionary statements about the failure of logic to explain the whole of biblical truth. He does this by stating that God is not subject to “our construct” of time, despite Boyd’s near constant appeal throughout a 2-hour lecture and Q & A session, all of which stresses the LOGIC of sequential Time. For Boyd stresses the “give and take” and a “before and after” in God/ human relationships, as demonstrated in certain statements of or by God in O.T. narratives. The problem, then, for Boyd, like that for all other Evangelical theologians (myself included), is that he must in the end resort to antinomy at some point. But I personally feel Boyd avoids admitting it in with any real frankness that would draw attention to the fact (that he is conceding an antinomy). However the matter lay with Boyd's candor or lack thereof, he IS, in either event, left with inconsistency in his basic hermeneutical approach. For on the one hand Boyd appeals to logic to establish what language should mean according to “sequence,” yet finds (or at least we find) that he cannot apply that principle of logic to the whole of biblical truth of God’s eternality in time.

This is why in the last week, here on this thread, I have ‘harped’ on the claim that the grammatical-historical method of interpretation is the only linguistically consistent and singular approach to the Bible, though admittedly it, too, does not always solve logical problems for at least one of the same reasons Boyd’s does not (e.g., the antinomy we have been observing). But at least with the grammatical-historical method one can be consistent with language, by insisting on the normal meaning of words as they were normally understood by people at the time the Bible was Authored. IMO no other method achieves this consistency.

My guess about what will happen to Open Theistic apologetics in the future is that it will, even more strongly than today, revise certain words and concepts as it develops along in Evangelical thought. That is, even as Calvinism changes the meaning of words based on special pleading via the grammatical subject, or when otherwise that movement’s distinctives are at stake, so, too, should we expect a similar modus operandum from Open Theism, as it (presumably) faces severer criticism in the years ahead. In fact, one can see from his writings how Boyd has already thrown the grammatical-historical hermeneutic onto the rubbish pile, claiming that the word “foreknow” really means “fore-love,” which he does at the expense of (apparently) any sense of obligation to the historical meaning of the word, except for the "fore-" part.

So then, in light of the failure of Calvinist and Open Theist approaches to maintain consistency of method of interpretation, imo the only hermaneutic that can achieve linguistic faithfulness at all times, while showing it can apply to the whole of biblical truth, is the grammatical-historical hermeneutic. And so that is what I think we should insist upon.
Last edited by DanielGracely on Fri Sep 24, 2010 7:56 am, edited 1 time in total.

Jeff
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Re: Verse that refutes both Calvinism and Open Theism at once?

Post by Jeff » Wed Aug 18, 2010 3:00 pm

TK wrote:DG wrote:
I think this goes to my point about accepting the idea of non-determnative foreknowledge based on the lexical evidence, etc. which on balance would suggest it is the more likely biblical view.
I am just curious about what your position is-- do you think God "knows the future" without at the same time affecting free will? I used to try to think this way, but became convinced it doesn't work.

TK
I guess I struggle with the logic between this, but maybe it's just me. Say for example that somehow I saw the future and that tomorrow you were going to have a ham sandwich - does that mean that I caused you to eat the ham sandwich simply because I knew that you would? I guess if I told you that tomorrow you would eat a ham sandwich and you did then it could be argued that you did so simply because you were "giving in to fate". Otherwise it seems to me that free will and foreknowledge are completely compatible. If not, then you would have to argue that by me simply knowing what you would eat, that I forced you to eat it.

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Re: Verse that refutes both Calvinism and Open Theism at once?

Post by Jeff » Wed Aug 18, 2010 3:02 pm

Homer wrote:Earlier TK wrote:
....do you think God "knows the future" without at the same time affecting free will? I used to try to think this way, but became convinced it doesn't work.
I guess I'm too simple minded for this discussion. If God knows I will order a tuna sandwich for lunch when we go to town tomorrow, how does that affect (maybe I should say "effect" :D ) my free will if I want a tuna sandwich? Seems to me God can know I will order a tuna sandwich and that I will freely choose to do so, and my free will is in no way affected. What's so tough about that?

And if God knows all future possibilities as though they are real, how is that any different than me (or you) knowing future possibilities? Just that God knows more of them? If they are only possibilities, they are then not facts. Seems to me the open theists are only logical part- time.
That is just too funny Homer. I just posted an example like this, except with a ham sandwich, just before I read your post. :)

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Re: Verse that refutes both Calvinism and Open Theism at once?

Post by TK » Wed Aug 18, 2010 4:45 pm

Hi Jeff--

If you had PERFECT foreknowledge (as God is said to have), it follows that if you KNEW i would have a ham sandwich tomorrow, then by gum I am going to have it.

It is different if you just make a lucky guess.

That is the dilemma. Since God is said (by some) to know perfectly today what someone will do tomorrow, then that person's tomorrow is "locked in." How could it be otherwise?

TK

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