Hi Robby,
You are missing my point. You have asserted that Jesus' commission to the Apostles/disciples was to go only to the Greco/Roman empire. You referred to historical accounts of Thomas going to India prior to the destruction of Jerusalem as a fable. The burden of proof is on you.
If Paul meant
oikumene in the sense you claim for it why didn't he use it his statements you cited?
Note: Kittel, Arndt/Gingrich, and Strong all give the primary meaning of
oikumene as the inhabited earth, the Roman lands as a secondary meaning.
Oikumene was, as used by the Romans, a political term they took for their empire.
I truly appreciate your scrutiny concerning my claims, that, Paul’s understanding of Jesus’ words in Matt 24:14 & Mark 16:15 were fulfilled in Israel’s last days (1st century).
Paul may have been using hyperbole, as is often employed in scripture. Regardless, my point is about the meaning of Christ's commission, not about when Jerusalem would be destroyed.
I consider the various words used to describe the extent of the commission to be used as synonyms. You cite Colossians 1:23 as proof that Paul understood the commission to be restricted to the Roman empire. But Paul used the word
kosmos; you say that he meant
oikumene as the Romans understood it. Then why didn't he use
oikumene, which you claim is a more precise word? Paul informs us in his own words his understanding of
kosmos , which he makes much use of. See acts 17:24:
Acts 17:24 New American Standard Bible
24. The God who made the world (kosmos)
and all things in it, since He is Lord of heaven and earth, does not dwell in temples made with hands;
What God made, according to Paul, was the world and all things in the world. Obviously God's creation was not limited to the Roman empire. So why would he employ
kosmos in a different sense in the two places? The same word used by Mark in describing the commission.
Despite the exclusion of in oikumene in the biblical references you provided, you are not practicing sound exegesis to refute my observations concerning Paul’s understanding. For example, in Matthew 24:14 when Jesus stated, “And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in all the world (oikumene) as a witness to all the nations, and then the end will come”, he was talking to His disciples, giving them signs and clues to know when they were getting close to the end of the Old Covenant Age. Now, Jesus used the word oikumene, a very unambiguous descriptive term, used only 15 times in the NT, mainly to describe The Roman Empire. So, in order for you and I to quell any remaining ambiguity to determine if Jesus truly meant The Roman Empire, we would need a confirmation of someone else clearly establishing this and claiming fulfillment. This would qualify and put into context ambiguous terms such as: kosmos, hapas, ethne, ge, and eschatos in order to prevent eisegesis on our part.
Oikumene is just as ambiguous as the other words.
Well guess what? We have that in The Apostle Paul, who said the following:
Rom 1:8
First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for all of you, because your faith is proclaimed in all the world Kosmos
Therefore, Paul gives testimony that the entire world, in the first century, knew of the Roman Christians’ faith in our Lord Jesus Christ. This obviously invalidates any private interpretation of the entire globe and make us look for an alternate meaning behind Mark 16:15. But, Paul further said:
Col 1:5-6
because of the hope laid up for you in heaven. Of this you have heard before in the word of the truth, the gospel, which has come to you, as indeed in the whole world (kosmos) it is bearing fruit and increasing—as it also does among you, since the day you heard it and understood the grace of God in truth
And…
Col 1:23
if indeed you continue in the faith, stable and steadfast, not shifting from the hope of the gospel that you heard, which has been proclaimed in all creation (ktisis) under heaven, and of which I, Paul, became a minister.
How is it you limit all creation under heaven to the Roman empire? And, again, Paul used oikumne in none of your citations. You erroneously claim it to the more precise word. Why then does he not use it?
Homer, we are simply discussing Paul's understanding. Therefore, this qualifies Matt 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47, & Acts 1:8 as the oikumene or Roman Empire Jesus prophesied about. Not because I said it, but because Paul said it.
Except Paul never said it. You are reading that into the text.
Furthermore, you have yet to prove Paul had a different understanding.
See above.
Finally, if this conversation is going to continue along this topic, I believe we should move it to another thread. We are straying from the original OP.
Seems to fit in this thread if the Christ'scommission was limited to the Greco/Roman world.
May you be blessed in the coming year!