Romans 8:28
Posted: Mon Feb 05, 2024 1:46 pm
I've been mediating on this passage in light of some burdens our family has been facing in a number of areas lately. I'm curious if anyone has any thoughts on the translation issues surrounding it which brings some nuance on what it is really saying.
The term "to those who love the Lord" is dative and it can be taken a few ways - it could be saying that those who love the Lord will experience the goodness spoken of - it could mean that those who love the Lord will consider those things good even if they don't experience it themselves - it could be they will know it's in God's good plan for the Kingdom even if they don't have "good" effects on them or those around them, and so forth.
Any thoughts on this?
The term "to those who love the Lord" is dative and it can be taken a few ways - it could be saying that those who love the Lord will experience the goodness spoken of - it could mean that those who love the Lord will consider those things good even if they don't experience it themselves - it could be they will know it's in God's good plan for the Kingdom even if they don't have "good" effects on them or those around them, and so forth.
Any thoughts on this?