Why did Jesus stop reading?

User avatar
morbo3000
Posts: 537
Joined: Tue May 29, 2012 9:05 pm
Location: Washington State
Contact:

Re: Why did Jesus stop reading?

Post by morbo3000 » Mon Feb 08, 2016 10:18 pm

The question centers on whether or not Jesus agreed that the words of Moses and the prophets were equivalent to the words of God.
Hasn't Paidon said that he does not believe in inspiration? That would mean neither Jesus' words, nor Moses' were the equivalent of God's words. Or it would mean that the words of the writers/editors of the gospels were not the words of God.

He said he doesn't like to admit that unless he is called on the carpet. But I think that reframes the whole discussion.
When you are a Bear of Very Little Brain, and you Think of Things, you find sometimes that a Thing which seemed very Thingish inside you is quite different when it gets out into the open and has other people looking at it.
JeffreyLong.net
Jesusna.me
@30thirteen

User avatar
steve
Posts: 3392
Joined: Thu Aug 21, 2008 9:45 pm

Re: Why did Jesus stop reading?

Post by steve » Tue Feb 09, 2016 11:29 am

I wrote:
I have previously shown that the apostles also believed that God strikes people dead (e.g., Herod in Acts 12, and the Book of Revelation—to mention only a few). Paidon has previous said that these writers were mistaken—meaning that those who kept company with Jesus and with His apostles knew less of the character of Christ (and what is, or is not consistent with Him) than Paidion himself knows. If this is, in any sense, an "honest" treatment of the New Testament writings, it is anything but humble.
To which Timeos responded:
Is that your humble opinion? Or your not-so-humble pronouncement?
I don't understand this question. Please elaborate. I am not sure how the statements of mine that you cited fall into either category of "humble" or "not-so-humble." There is no expression of my motives in the statement—merely a factual observation. I have no idea how the motives behind the presentation could be discerned—or would even be an issue—when considering the validity of the point observed.


Paidion wrote:
I just cannot see how the act of killing people and ordering others to kill people, often in a very painful way, can arise out of LOVE.
A little child often cannot “see how” a parent’s actions, which involve a child’s suffering, could arise out of parental love—even though another adult could see it quite clearly—as, for example, in the case when a gangrenous leg must be sawed off in the absence of anesthesia. The question for us would be whether we can trust that God sees a bigger picture than what we see, and could be acting in love, even in actions that involve great pain or even the ending of a person’s temporal life. If not, perhaps we are more like little children than we imagine ourselves to be.
(Jesus never did it, during his time as a human being).
You have set up this straw man several times, and have been notified of the inadequacy of its use as an argument for your position.

It is clear that the prophets also did not kill anyone, though they believed in the law of Moses, including its prescribed penalties. They also believed that God brings mortal judgment upon apostate Israel and other nations. The fact that they, personally, never killed anyone is irrelevant.

It is also evident that Paul and Luke believed that God judges and kills people in certain circumstances, and that there are crimes that are "worthy of death" (e.g., Romans 1:32; Acts 25:11). Yet, neither of these men ever killed anyone. Their not killing anyone does not enter into any rational argument of what they believed about such things.

After my death, if you were to be discussing my theology on this topic, and you were to say, "Steve believed in capital punishment and also that God sometimes strikes people dead," what would you think of someone countering your position by saying, "You are wrong. I am reliably informed that Steve never killed a single person in his lifetime"?

Would you not see very clearly that the person's argument was absurd?


Paidion wrote:
It seems to me, that if such acts do have their source in love, then we must redefine the very word "love" to accommodate such acts.


Quite right! It is important that our definition of love conform with reality—not to culturally or temperamentally-derived sentimentality. The danger of succumbing to such sentimentality cannot be overestimated. A commitment to reality may require, sometimes, that we change definitions that we have previously adopted, in order to agree with the truth.

"Love" is defined by the commitment to do what is best for others—if possible, for all parties, but if not, then for the greatest number of persons possible. Seen this way, every act of God recorded in scripture can be seen as acts of love—even Jesus’ scathing public denunciations of the scribes and Pharisees (who probably felt considerable angst and mortification in being thus addressed).
In United States and Canada, any citizen who kills the people that he hates would be arrested as a criminal, and if convicted, be given a life sentence or be executed. I just cannot comprehend the rationalization that God can do things that would be immoral if people did them, simply because He is God.
You are criticizing God’s actions on the basis of the punitive policies of the State, which you apparently think justified. You either see such law-enforcement as legitimate or as illegitimate. If you are not saying that the State’s punitive actions are justified, then your argument disappears into the ether. You seem to be saying that some criminal acts require punishment, and that this would apply equally to God's criminal acts. I find it very telling of your prejudices that you place God's actions on the "criminal" side of the ledger, rather than on the "criminal justice system" side.

Your argument, as framed, claims that such criminal actions deserve this State-imposed punishment and that God would also deserve this punishment if He did all the things that Moses, David, the prophets, Jesus and the apostles claim that He did.

John6809 rightly pointed out that you apparently see criminal justice remedies as legitimate, when carried out by law-enforcement agencies of the State, but illegitimate when carried out by God Himself.

The philosopher John Stuart Mill wrote:
To say that God's goodness may be different in kind from man's goodness, what is it but saying, with a slight change of phraseology, that God may possibly not be good?
John Stuart Mill was an atheist (godfather to Bertrand Russell), and not the best source for views on Christian theology. Perhaps we could follow this up with an insightful quote from Richard Dawkins about the kind of God the Bible portrays. “Evil men do not understand justice, But those who seek the Lord understand all.” (Prov.28:5). The man who denies God His proper role in the universe will never sympathize with God’s proper exercise of that role.

If a friend were to tell you that his uncle was responsible for denying the freedom, and for the subsequent ruination of the lives, of hundreds of citizens, you might think the man a monster—until you learned that the uncle was a civil magistrate, and that every person whose life was adversely affected by his actions was a deserving criminal. It is all a matter of perspective. Is there a God in charge, or not?

Goodness is the same, in principle, with God as with men. Those who recognize God’s role as the supreme maintainer of justice in the universe have no problem seeing that His good administration of justice operates on the same principles as any other proper governmental administration of justice. The protection of the general citizenry always requires the removal of criminals from the general population. You approve of the State doing this, but not of God doing so. It seems that you are the one who does not apply the same standard of “goodness” to God as to human (i.e., governmental) behavior.

From your earlier comments, I conclude that you approve of the removal of violent criminals from the general population. You apparently do not approve of capital punishment, but the alternative, in many cases, would be life-imprisonment of offenders.

The approval of one of these punishments over the other is arbitrary. Both punishments, if deserved, are legitimate; and both are evil, if undeserved. Saying, “It is all right to take a man’s life and freedom away for as long as he breathes, but it is wring to take his breath as well,” is an arbitrary, subjective ethic without biblical or rational justification. Justice involves the giving of penalties that are deserved. Some say that capital punishment is evil because innocent parties sometimes are wrongly condemned. However, life imprisonment is also a great evil, if the party condemned was innocent. If we say, “But the man in prison can be exonerated by DNA evidence at a later date, while the executed man cannot be,” we are still not thinking clearly. The man exonerated after 20 years in prison has still had irreplaceable life taken from him unjustly.

The problem with punishing innocent men—whether in taking 20 years of life from them, or by taking the duration of their lifetime from them—is a problem with the court system, not the prison system. There may be corruption or incompetence in the criminal justice system—leading to the wrongful conviction of innocent men upon inadequate evidence—and this must be decried and remedied. But this does not change the fact that all undeserved punishment is unjust, and all deserved punishment is just. Our court systems often err in determining what is or is not deserved—but such errors are not in the picture when discussing God’s judgment.

If we say that God is unjust when He punishes someone deserving of punishment, then we have created a bizarre, subjective definition of justice that cannot be supported by any rational ethic. If we, rather, argue that no person could commit any act deserving of death, rendering God unjust for executing any guilty criminal, then we have departed from Christian theology altogether, and ought to be arguing on a secular forum, rather than here.

John wrote:
What are you saying, Paidion? You seem to be giving approval for the state to arrest or execute murderers but saying God doesn't have that same right.
To which Paidion wrote:
No, that is not my point. My point is that killing other people out of anger or hate is wrong, whether the killing is done by man or by a deity.

It is the sure proof of an indefensible position that, when challenged, one must mischaracterize the opponent’s position in order for his argument to avoid admitting defeat. If a position can only be shown to be wrong after it has been reduced to a caricature, this is pretty good evidence that it is a correct position in its real formulation—and that the caricaturist is in a desperate position.

Paidion’s statement cited above is simply not true. What would be wrong would be the unjust killing of a criminal by unauthorized parties. Soldiers at war, and State executioners, are not in the same position, in such matters, as are private citizens. God is not a private citizen.

Paidion has changed-up the whole discussion by identifying God’s objectionable behavior as “killing other people out of anger or hate.” I don’t know why the actions of a judge who rightly condemns a serial killer should be condemned, simply because that judge may also feel anger or hatred toward the miscreant. It is the actions of a judge, not his emotions, that prove him either to be a just or unjust magistrate.

If there were a god who executed righteous judgment, and did so with a disposition of either anger or hatred, this might not seem to be much like the God we worship, but, since the judgment rendered was just, his actions could not be impugned by reference to his emotions.

The Christian who takes the biblical position that God judges evil men according to justice and desert, however, does not necessarily involve any consideration of His emotional state in doing so. To introduce the wild card of God’s doing this “out of anger or hate” is to deliberately muddy the waters and obscure the issues, by introducing an emotional element that does not comprise a part of anyone’s argument.

If we are to trust the Old Testament (as I do, though Paidion does not), then God is loath to punish sinners. He is slow to anger, and plenteous in mercy. He does not keep His anger forever. He has no pleasure in the death of the wicked. This is the position I am taking, and, seemingly, the one which anyone who believes the Bible must necessarily take, because it says these things rather unambiguously.

User avatar
Paidion
Posts: 5452
Joined: Mon Aug 18, 2008 10:22 pm
Location: Back Woods of North-Western Ontario

Re: Why did Jesus stop reading?

Post by Paidion » Tue Feb 09, 2016 7:51 pm

Though I think you are wrong in all your criticisms, Steve, I will deal with just one.
I wrote:Jesus never did it [killed anyone or ordered anyone to kill], during his time as a human being.
you wrote:You have set up this straw man several times, and have been notified of the inadequacy of its use as an argument for your position.
Straw man? Do you even know what the straw man fallacy is? It is setting up an argument that gives the impression of refuting an opponent's argument, while actually refuting an argument which was not advanced by that opponent. How have I done that? What I have been trying to show is that God doesn't kill, and I am attempting to refute the argument that He does. If I refuted some other argument, and gave the impression of refuting the "God kills" argument, THAT would be attacking a straw man.
It is clear that the prophets also did not kill anyone, though they believed in the law of Moses, including its prescribed penalties. They also believed that God brings mortal judgment upon apostate Israel and other nations. The fact that they, personally, never killed anyone is irrelevant.
Yes, I agree that that is irrelevant.
It is also evident that Paul and Luke believed that God judges and kills people in certain circumstances, and that there are crimes that are "worthy of death" (e.g., Romans 1:32; Acts 25:11). Yet, neither of these men ever killed anyone. Their not killing anyone does not enter into any rational argument of what they believed about such things.
Well, before his conversion, Paul probably killed many Christians or had them killed, since he "persecuted the church of God violently and tried to destroy it" (Gal 1:3). That is why he called himself the chief of sinners. But whether he did or not kill is irrelevant too, of course.
After my death, if you were to be discussing my theology on this topic, and you were to say, "Steve believed in capital punishment and also that God sometimes strikes people dead," what would you think of someone countering your position by saying, "You are wrong. I am reliably informed that Steve never killed a single person in his lifetime"? Would you not see very clearly that the person's argument was absurd?
Yes, I would clearly say that that argument is absurd.

However, you seem to be the one who is attacking a straw man. The prophets, Paul, Luke, and yourself, are not God.
Trinitarians such as yourself, as well as Modalists, believe that Jesus IS God. And therefore, if God kills and orders others to kill, one would expect Jesus to do have done the same. But instead of carrying out the law of Moses to stone the adulteress to death, he saved her from her accusers.

But even if Jesus is not God—as the Son of God, He is another exactly like God. He is "the exact imprint of the Father's essence" (Heb 1:3), and so one would expect Him to behave like God. Therefore, since Jesus did not kill, or order others to kill, then it is rational to believe the same of God.
Paidion

Man judges a person by his past deeds, and administers penalties for his wrongdoing. God judges a person by his present character, and disciplines him that he may become righteous.

Avatar shows me at 75 years old. I am now 83.

dizerner

Re: Why did Jesus stop reading?

Post by dizerner » Tue Feb 09, 2016 8:09 pm

But instead of carrying out the law of Moses to stone the adulteress to death, he saved her from her accusers.
Jesus did carry out the Law of Moses for sinners in his own death though. This is why he could forgive her if she trusted in him. Everyone there justly deserved to be stoned to death under the Law of Moses, and Jesus didn't say "I hereby forgive everyone here!" Jesus upheld the Law of Moses because it shows we are all sinners deserving of death.

User avatar
Jepne
Posts: 251
Joined: Fri Jul 24, 2009 8:08 pm

Re: Why did Jesus stop reading?

Post by Jepne » Sat Feb 13, 2016 1:29 pm

Steve said, “The man exonerated after 20 years in prison has still had irreplaceable life taken from him unjustly.''

Men in prison still come to the faith, earn college degrees, become lawyers, etc. Steve, I have read you saying in other places that the innocent man might as well be dead as in prison for life. When he is alive, he can have hope. His family can have hope. Even when a guilty man is executed, society and his family are deprived of hope - hope that he will come to repentance, salvation, a fruitful life in which he can teach other transgressors the ways of God. Capital punishment is a crime against our sense of humanity.

If Jesus is the exact image of God, one would think he would have at least ordered the death of the woman taken in adultery, the imprisonment of Zaccheus the tax collector, and the many sinners and prostitutes Jesus hung out with. There is only one instance of him moving in anger, and that is the 'cleansing of the Temple', at which time no one was irreparably harmed. Paul never 'paid' for his crime of ordering the deaths of Christians, but lived to bring many to the Lord and give us so many wonderful letters.

Paidion said, “... killing other people out of anger or hate is wrong, whether the killing is done by man or by a deity.”

He is right - representatives of the State are never called to kill out of anger and hatred: An army kills in order to defend the people of the nation they represent. A man holding people hostage at gunpoint is killed to protect the hostages, not out of anger and hatred. A man who murders is put away to protect the citizenry - his imprisonment is the consequence of his action.

My thinking has been that punishment is a penalty that satisfies the one who metes it out, whereas, a consequence is more likely to force a person to face what he has done and come to repentance.
"Anything you think you know about God that you can't find in the person of Jesus, you have reason to question.” - anonymous

User avatar
steve
Posts: 3392
Joined: Thu Aug 21, 2008 9:45 pm

Re: Why did Jesus stop reading?

Post by steve » Sat Feb 13, 2016 3:10 pm

Men in prison still come to the faith...
Yes, and so do men on death row. In fact, they have a greater urgency to motivate them, if they are the type who can be converted. Same with men on the battle field. There are no more deaths per capita among soldiers or executed murderers than there are among the general population at large. The mortality rate is 100% for all categories. One advantage that a death row inmate and a soldier in battle have over the average citizen, is that they have some indicators that their appointment with death may be imminent—leading them to make their peace with God (if they are so inclined).
Men in prison still...earn college degrees, become lawyers, etc.
Do you think this fact exonerates the corrupt courts that sent an innocent man to prison, where he earned a law degree? My point is that the accidental sending of an innocent man to prison is inherently as unjust as is the accidental execution of the same. The courts are to be blamed for both miscarriages of justice. This does nto begin to address the justice of capital punishment as a penalty for real murderers.
Capital punishment is a crime against our sense of humanity.
Not mine. For a man who has taken the life of an innocent party to be spared the just recompense of his deeds is to show no respect for human life. It suggests that the taking of human life requires no comparable penalties. A man may die in prison for having stolen a car as readily as he may die in prison for taking a life. So far as the penalties are concerned, the life is treated as no more valuable than the car. This is an anti-life sentiment.

A stance against capital punishment disrespects the life of the innocent human victim. I will go along with Paul on this matter, since he knew more about the heart of God and of Christ than does anyone at this forum—and he found capital punishment quite agreeable with his Christian sentiments (Acts 25:11; Rom.13:4). Some here may believe that they understand Christ better than did Paul, but they will not be able to persuade me of what can only be regarded as unwarranted arrogance—and no honest exegete can claim that capital punishment offended Paul's sense of humanity.
If Jesus is the exact image of God, one would think he would have at least ordered the death of the woman taken in adultery, the imprisonment of Zaccheus the tax collector, and the many sinners and prostitutes Jesus hung out with. There is only one instance of him moving in anger, and that is the 'cleansing of the Temple', at which time no one was irreparably harmed. Paul never 'paid' for his crime of ordering the deaths of Christians, but lived to bring many to the Lord and give us so many wonderful letters.
The God who ordered the deaths of certain criminals also showed compassion to many (including David) who were worthy of such penalties. The cases where Christ did this tell us nothing of His beliefs about criminal justice, just as God's forgiving David tell us nothing about God's views on criminal justice—expressed in the Torah, which even David regarded as a perfect and just code (See Psalm 19:7-10; Ch.119).

By the way, there is no evidence that Paul ever killed a Christian or was directly responsible for their deaths, other than his agreeing with the condemnation, in a courtroom case, of persons he honestly believed to have been guilty of capital crimes. It is interesting that, even though he was later mortified to realize his complicity in such a miscarriage of justice, he still believed in capital punishment, in general.
Paidion said, “... killing other people out of anger or hate is wrong, whether the killing is done by man or by a deity.”

He is right - representatives of the State are never called to kill out of anger and hatred: An army kills in order to defend the people of the nation they represent. A man holding people hostage at gunpoint is killed to protect the hostages, not out of anger and hatred. A man who murders is put away to protect the citizenry - his imprisonment is the consequence of his action.
I have to assume that you did not read my response to Paidion on this point, or else you probably would not have raised again this straw man. As I said, no one thinks it appropriate to condemn someone merely out of anger. The question, though, is not whether a judge feels anger, but whether he delivers a just verdict and sentence.
My thinking has been that punishment is a penalty that satisfies the one who metes it out, whereas, a consequence is more likely to force a person to face what he has done and come to repentance.
Criminal penalties do not have to satisfy any person—the judge, the criminal, nor the public. They must conform to justice.

We live in a time where people can believe any wrong thing they wish about Christian ethics, with legal impunity. Therefore, I do not oppose Paidion's right to think unbiblically about these matters. What I do oppose is the dishonesty exhibited in his claiming to represent the thinking of Jesus on points where he disagrees with Christ's own words, and those of the apostles whom Christ appointed to represent His teachings to the world.

Paidion's (entirely predictable) refusal to address my long post on page 4 of this thread, which I wrote in response to his request for documentation of my point, can only testify to the impossibility of his position's answering my points honestly without giving up the farm. Yet, without answering them, one cannot seriously pretend that his position is faithful to Christ's teachings.

User avatar
Paidion
Posts: 5452
Joined: Mon Aug 18, 2008 10:22 pm
Location: Back Woods of North-Western Ontario

Re: Why did Jesus stop reading?

Post by Paidion » Sat Feb 13, 2016 8:19 pm

Steve, you wrote:Paidion's (entirely predictable) refusal to address my long post on page 4 of this thread, which I wrote in response to his request for documentation of my point, can only testify to the impossibility of his position's answering my points honesty without giving up the farm. Yet, without answering them, one cannot seriously pretend that his position is faithful to Christ's teachings.
Well, I guess if it was "entirely predictable," there was not much point in posting your objections again, WAS there? It was my impression that I had answered these objections long ago, and that you simply dismissed them as emotional and unscriptural. So I didn't see any point in repeating my explanations. I truly didn't realize that you expected me to answer them now (or rather you didn't expect me to answer them since my "refusal" to do it was "entirely predictable"). In any case, I will answer your Example #1 at this time, and see what transpires.
Example #1: “Not one jot or tittle…” (Matt.5:18)

When Jesus said that not the slightest detail of the Torah would pass prior to its fulfillment, He was stating as plainly as language can communicate that there was no particle within the Law that did not need to be fulfilled. But this presupposes (as no Jew, including Jesus, doubted) that the need for fulfillment was a divine necessity—hardly necessary if vast tracts of the Law were merely of human origin and contrary to God’s sentiments.

If Jesus found something objectionable in these Laws of Moses, this was a good time for Him to point it out—or at least to refrain from endorsing every jot and tittle of it!
Here is the passage from Matthew 5, and my verse-by-verse exegesis:

17 “Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them.

Obviously, He didn't mean that He fulfilled the law of Moses in the sense that he kept those laws. For He broke the Sabbath (John 5:18). In fact, he went out of his way to heal on the Sabbath, when He could have done it on other days instead. As the ruler of the synogogue said to Him to the people who were being healed, “There are six days in which work ought to be done. Come on those days and be healed, and not on the Sabbath day.”(Luke 13:14) Also, He didn't keep the Law of Moses by failing to agree that the adulteress should be stoned (according to the Law of Moses). Surely, if Jesus had been talking about carrying out the law of Moses, He would have carried out those laws Himself.

There is a section of the Hebrew scriptures know as "the Law and the Prophets". Jesus said, on another occasion, that Moses wrote about Him (John 5:46). Thus Jesus in his life, fulfilled those writings of Moses and the prophets. These writings are that which He came not to abolish but to fulfill in his life and in his death.

18 For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished.

So how will all be accomplished? When everyone in the world obeys the Torah? This is not talking about the Torah at all. Jesus is still talking about "the Law" section of the Hebrew writings—in particular the part that speaks of Him, and what He would accomplish by his life and death on man's behalf.

19 Therefore whoever relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever does them and teaches them will be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
20 For I tell you, unless your righteousness exceeds that of the scribes and Pharisees, you will never enter the kingdom of heaven.


Jesus is now talking about the commandments—the laws which He is about to give. Jesus commandments comprise the LAW above the Law (of Moses). Paul knew this LAW as "the LAW of Christ" (1 Cor 9:21, Gal 6:2). Part of Christ's fulfillment of the predictions about Him in "the Law" section of the Hebrew writings was his spelling out of HIS LAW in Matthew 5, 6, and 7. It is evident that He is talking about his commandments, because He immediately launches into them (Matt 5:21-7:15). Jesus contrasts what He commands to the Law of Moses, though his commands go even deeper in many cases.

Notice Jesus doesn't even say that such laws are God's laws, or even Moses' laws; rather He introduces them with, "It was said to you of old time."
So it appears to me that "vast tracts of the Law [of Moses] were merely of human origin and contrary" (not "to God’s sentiments") but to God's LAW that is above the Law (of Moses), and identical to the LAW of Christ.

Now lest some ask what the "therefore" is "there for" in verse 19, I would say that it follows from the fact that Jesus was fulfilling all the predictions about Him, that no one should relax the least of his commandments and to teach others to do the same. Incidentally, the commandment of Christ that is not only relaxed but completely ignored by much of the Christian community today, is the commandment not to swear an oath.
Paidion

Man judges a person by his past deeds, and administers penalties for his wrongdoing. God judges a person by his present character, and disciplines him that he may become righteous.

Avatar shows me at 75 years old. I am now 83.

User avatar
Homer
Posts: 2995
Joined: Sat Aug 23, 2008 11:08 pm

Re: Why did Jesus stop reading?

Post by Homer » Sun Feb 14, 2016 12:26 am

Hi Paidion,

You wrote:
There is a section of the Hebrew scriptures know as "the Law and the Prophets".
That is a dubious assertion. Where do you find this idea expressed in the text of the scriptures? Many exegetes inform us that the "Law and the Prophets" was a regular expression Jews of Jesus’ day used to refer to the entire Old Testament. In the OT we regularly find laws that are classed as "moral" and in the very next verse we find a supposed ceremonial law with no notice by the writer. You mention Jesus' breaking the Sabbath by healing and He refutes His accusers by referencing the narrative of Samuel concerning David. Its all intertwined.

I believe the entire OT either stands or falls as a whole.

User avatar
steve
Posts: 3392
Joined: Thu Aug 21, 2008 9:45 pm

Re: Why did Jesus stop reading?

Post by steve » Sun Feb 14, 2016 10:03 am

Paidion,

The reason I get frustrated discussing this particular subject with you is that you seem to make things up as you go along. On some subjects, you seem very devoted to being faithful to Christ's teachings, but on this subject you have a mental wall that even Jesus is not allowed to penetrate.

In order not to allow Jesus to tell you where you are wrong, you will fabricate phenomena like "a part of the scriptures called the law and the prophets" which Jesus and the Jews allegedly distinguished from the whole of the Old Testament Torah and prophets—not because any such distinction really ever existed, but because your position requires that some such expedient be invented.

When you do this kind of thing, you cease to appear to be an honest reader or disciple of Christ—and I truly find it shockingly out of character for you. On most subjects, I can expect an honest treatment of scripture in discussions with you, but you just further entrench yourself when Christ and the apostles contradict you on this pet doctrine of yours.
It was my impression that I had answered these objections long ago, and that you simply dismissed them as emotional and unscriptural. So I didn't see any point in repeating my explanations. I truly didn't realize that you expected me to answer them now...
Are you serious? Do you believe I posted those points without wanting you to answer them? What do you think this forum is for? You’ve been posting here for over ten years. Haven’t you figured out that I don’t post here except to participate in dialogue?

You repeatedly claim that you answered all these points previously, and I have to wonder, "Is he being serious?" I can't believe that you really think you have addressed my points. I have begged you to answer all the points at least three or four times in various threads, and you have never answered any more than one of them in response. You always say, "I have answered these many times before [Do you actually tell yourself that this has happened?], but here I will just answer one of them..."

Why? Why not answer all or most of them right here? If you really have answers to these, even if you think you have presented them, why not humor me and give them again, since I and others have obviously not been able to find your answers in past threads? The reason I posted them again here is because you specifically asked me to do so. I had given them repeatedly before, but I did so again because you requested it. Remember, your post just prior to mine (page 4 of this thread), where you said:
I realize you don't want to "repeat the multiple instances where Jesus' 'true and without error' teachings affirm the very attributes of judgment in God's nature," but I would truly appreciate it, if you gave just ONE quote from Jesus in which He clearly states that God killed or did other violent acts or commanded His people to do violent acts (such as is written in the Old Testament that He did). Please make it the clearest and most powerful one in your list of "multiple instances."
So I laboriously laid out the instances again, at your request. Now, why don't you do the same for me? I clearly asked for your response, and you have dodged these points in every thread previously—as you are continuing to do.

The answer you gave here was not to the point at all. I did not suggest that Jesus kept the Law. Some people claim this, but you should know by now that I do make such an assertion. My point is that Jesus affirmed every jot and tittle as requiring [required by whom?] complete fulfillment. "Fulfillment" does not mean observance, in this case. Jesus clearly says that the Law must be fulfilled in the same sense that the Prophets must be fulfilled. He had come to fulfill the things predicted in the ceremonies of the law and in the promises of the prophets. Your answer above does not deal with the point I raised. My point is: If there were jots and tittles (or vast tracts) of the mosaic legislation that had no divine stamp of approval upon them, as you assert, wherein lay the necessity (as per Jesus' statement) of all of them being fulfilled? It is a simple question. You didn't touch it in your response.

Your invention of "a section of the Hebrew scriptures know as 'the Law and the Prophets'" which were distinguished from the actual commandments given by Moses is breathtakingly disingenuous. Why not just say that you have as little regard for many of the things that Jesus said as you have for Moses, David, the prophets and the New Testament apostolic writers? You have demonstrated this attitude—why not just say it outright and get me off your back about this? The only reason I keep on you about this is because you still claim verbally to believe and follow Jesus, but you will not honestly respond to the many things Jesus said with which you disagree.

I know I get hard on you about this, Paidion. It is because of your refusal to engage the points that disprove your position—which makes it difficult to see you as the honest man that I otherwise think you to be. You have got to be uncomfortable in these dialogues. I just wonder why you don't make it easier for us all either by saying "I was wrong," or else by saying plainly (as you appear to demonstrate your position to be), "My personal opinions about Jesus exceed all scripture in authority, including the words of Jesus Himself. Since I know I am right, I have no need of scripture to support my position, so stop asking me to engage scripturally."

I feel like the "bad guy" in holding your feet to the fire about this, but you keep raising your false doctrine, without defending it against fatal challenges. You know that we allow anyone to post any doctrine here at the forum, and have rarely banned anyone from participating. However, the forum is not here for people simply to lay out bombshells and then refuse to defend them against challenges. This is a place intended for rational and honest discussion of people's beliefs and ideas. If you want to interact with challenges to your position, then please do so. If you don't want to, then stop posting ideas that all historical Christians would regard as heretical, which you are not prepared to defend against challenges.

User avatar
Paidion
Posts: 5452
Joined: Mon Aug 18, 2008 10:22 pm
Location: Back Woods of North-Western Ontario

Re: Why did Jesus stop reading?

Post by Paidion » Sun Feb 14, 2016 4:33 pm

Well, there you go again, Steve. I answered just one point to see whether it would make any impact whatever; apparently it hasn't. So what is to be gained by explaining again why I don't see the other points as valid objections to my views?

I was surprised, however, to discover from your post above, that we agree that "Jesus fulfilling the law" refers to his fulfilling the prophecies about Him in the law—every point of those prophecies. That I have never denied. There's nothing disingenuous at all about my reply. I wasn't APPEARING to give an answer, without actually giving one. I gave an answer; but you seem unwilling to receive it.
My point is: If there were jots and tittles (or vast tracts) of the mosaic legislation that had no divine stamp of approval upon them, as you assert...
I do not assert that there are jots and tittles of the prophetic aspect of the Law that were not fulfilled. It was this aspect that Jesus fulfilled completely. You, yourself, asserted in your post that He didn't keep the legislative-aspect of the Law Himself. So He wasn't supporting that aspect in his statements.
I am greatly surprised that you wrote:Your invention of "a section of the Hebrew scriptures know as 'the Law and the Prophets'" which were distinguished from the actual commandments given by Moses is breathtakingly disingenuous.
I am surprised that you, the great Biblical scholar (and I say this about you honestly and not sarcastically) would be ignorant of the fact that there is such a section: one part called "the law" and another called "the prophets." When a Hebrew person wished to refer to both parts, he called them "the law and the prophets." This is still true in our day. I happen to possess "The Jewish Study Bible", which includes the Tanahk translation by the Jewish Publication Society. The first section in this Bible is called "The Torah" (The Law). The five books of Moses make up "The Torah": Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy. The second section of the Jewish Study Bible is called "The Nevi'im" (The Prophets), consisting of the books: Joshua, Judges, 1 Samuel, 2 Samuel, 1 Kings, 2 Kings, Isaiah, Jeremiah, and Ezekiel.

So the fact that Jesus said, "For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled," in no way implies that He believed that God approved of every legislative command that Moses imposed upon the Israelites.
Paidion

Man judges a person by his past deeds, and administers penalties for his wrongdoing. God judges a person by his present character, and disciplines him that he may become righteous.

Avatar shows me at 75 years old. I am now 83.

Post Reply

Return to “Major and Minor Prophets”