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- Wed Sep 20, 2006 4:01 pm
- Forum: Marriage & Divorce
- Topic: adulterous marriage question
- Replies: 28
- Views: 19339
The sexual encounters that occurred before marriage did not themselves constitute marriages, so the first marriage is still the first. It would only be adultery if there had been a prior marriage that was not legitimately ended (Matt.5:32/ 19:9). I would slightly and respectfully disagree with this...