Please pardon the untimely response.
If this is so:From these passages we learn that Paul wanted to remove any offense from his message so he acted as a Jew under the law, only to later explain (to those same Jews) that he wasn't bound by it. Likewise, at the Jerusalem Council, James instructs the Gentiles not to practice certain offensive acts because Moses has been preached everywhere and people were aware of the law. My view on this, and I could be wrong, is that Paul and James simply wanted to remove unnecessary offense to the Jews since they already viewed Gentiles are "unclean." This sort of thing probably wasn't ideal, but it may have been necessary at such a time in church history.


Shlamaa,
Emmet