Messianic use of OT statements
Posted: Thu Dec 23, 2004 4:39 pm
Maybe this is an evil question. But today I've been studying the messianic prophecies by simply using the strongs concordance list of prophecies fulfilled by the Messiah and it seems to me that in some cases, the NT usage of the OT verse would be considered 'proof-texting' if something similar were done today. Obviously I believe that the NT writers were inspired by God and are at no fault in their usage of OT texts, but has anyone else thought this?
Verses like
Hosea 11:1 --> Matthew 2:15
Jeremiah 31:15 --> Matthew 2:17-18
Just examples
Does this give any legitimacy to similar usage of the OT today? Or is the key difference in the fact that they were inspired authors of Scripture and we are not (I'm assuming this is the answer)? Or am I missing something else?
I guess what I'm saying is this...if i were an unbeliever, I'd argue that there is enough content in the OT, that no matter what the supposed 'Messiah' did, an OT verse that sounds similar could have been 'made' messianic by his followers.
Obviously this ignores the very specific prophecies (the 70 seven's, the virgin birth, and the place of birth, etc), but what would a good response be to such an argument?
Verses like
Hosea 11:1 --> Matthew 2:15
Jeremiah 31:15 --> Matthew 2:17-18
Just examples
Does this give any legitimacy to similar usage of the OT today? Or is the key difference in the fact that they were inspired authors of Scripture and we are not (I'm assuming this is the answer)? Or am I missing something else?
I guess what I'm saying is this...if i were an unbeliever, I'd argue that there is enough content in the OT, that no matter what the supposed 'Messiah' did, an OT verse that sounds similar could have been 'made' messianic by his followers.
Obviously this ignores the very specific prophecies (the 70 seven's, the virgin birth, and the place of birth, etc), but what would a good response be to such an argument?