The Narrow Path Ministries

Hello, I am hoping that someone might have an answer to my question!

In John 21:15-17 Jesus asked Peter if he "loved" him. As many know the word "love" that Jesus used is "agape" in the Greek. Peter responded with the Greek word "Phileo," also translated love.

My questions: Did the original conversation take place in Greek or Aramaic? If it was in Aramaic then do the two Greek words (Agape and Phileo) have Aramaic equivalents? If so, what are they? Or, did the author use the aforementioned Greek words as a commentary of sorts on the conversation, but that they were really not spoken?

Thanks anyone for your help!

peace,

dane

This article might be of use:

http://www.pfrs.org/jewish/hr08.html

Ely

There are times when it seems that agape and Phileo are used interchangeably.

My questions: Did the original conversation take place in Greek or Aramaic? If it was in Aramaic then do the two Greek words (Agape and Phileo) have Aramaic equivalents? If so, what are they? Or, did the author use the aforementioned Greek words as a commentary of sorts on the conversation, but that they were really not spoken?

I doubt that John was giving a commentary but just doing his best to relay the conversation accurately. I think Jesus was challenging Peter to see in what way did Peter love him and to try to encourage him to love him agape.

Thanks for the replies. However, they really didn't address my main question. Let me just simplify it ...

A) The orginal conversation took place in Aramaic or Greek?

B? If Greek, then go no farther, my query is satisfied.

B) If Aramaic, then what word did Jesus use for "agape," and what word did He use for "pheleo?"

Thanks!

dane

I do not think anyone knows whether the conversation took place in Greek or in Hebrew (or more likely, Aramaic).

In any case, I think the words in Greek are significant. Doubtless John was present, and remembered Jesus' conversation with Peter. So, even if the conversation took place in Aramaic, there must have been a reason that John, when he wrote his gospel in Greek, chose the Greek verb "agapao" to record some parts of the conversation, and "phileo" to record other parts.

In general, the word "phileo" means "to like" or "be fond of", such as having a fondness or liking for apple pie, or for a person. The other word descibes a form of love which is not concerned with mere liking only, but also a desire for the other persons' welfare.

featheredprop wrote:Thanks for the replies. However, they really didn't address my main question. Let me just simplify it ...

A) The orginal conversation took place in Aramaic or Greek?

B? If Greek, then go no farther, my query is satisfied.

Did you read the link i posted? ( http://www.pfrs.org/jewish/hr08.html )

Hi Dane,

I hope you don't mind, and maybe I should have asked first, but I asked your question at another discussion board: TheologyWeb. I haven't gotten an answer about whether there were two words used in Aramaic yet. Maybe we'll never find out?

Sorry Michelle .. I was away for a while.

Thanks for posting my question on the other site. If you get a response I would appreciate it!

peace,

dane

Hi Feather, My understanding from what i've heard many times is that Jesus spoke in Aramaic and that it's likely that John used two different words to highlight the fact that Jesus was trying to get Peter to understand the difference between "agope" (Godly sacrificial) love and human love"phileo" which tends to put ourselves first.