How should this verse be translated?

User avatar
Paidion
Posts: 5452
Joined: Mon Aug 18, 2008 10:22 pm
Location: Back Woods of North-Western Ontario

Re: How should this verse be translated?

Post by Paidion » Sun Mar 15, 2009 10:27 pm

No, Michelle. I'm not holding back, nor do I think the verse has been misused.

It's just that I couldn't make sense of the following translation as a number of versions have it:
Because (there is) one bread, we (who are) many are one body. For we all partake of the one bread.
I assumed that the "one bread" referred to the single loaf used for communion in the early church. If that were the case, having a single loaf at communion could not be the reason that we who are many are one body.

I would never have guessed that anyone interpreted the "one bread" otherwise, if it had not been for Homer's statement that he regarded the "one bread" as a reference to Christ. Of course, if Paul meant it to refer to Christ, then that translation makes perfect sense.

Because I couldn't make sense of the common translation as quoted above, I suggested two other alternative translations, wondering which one of the three made the most sense to others.
Paidion

Man judges a person by his past deeds, and administers penalties for his wrongdoing. God judges a person by his present character, and disciplines him that he may become righteous.

Avatar shows me at 75 years old. I am now 83.

User avatar
Michelle
Posts: 845
Joined: Fri Aug 22, 2008 12:16 pm

Re: How should this verse be translated?

Post by Michelle » Sun Mar 15, 2009 11:26 pm

Thanks for answering, Paidion. Again, I'm sorry for thinking that you were holding something back.

Post Reply

Return to “Acts & Epistles”