Colossians 1:24

[Guest]

Our sufferings adds what is "lacking" of Jesus' work?
Any comments on this would be appreciated.

[Guest]

It may just be saying that we should "fill up in my flesh what is lacking". What is lacking in my flesh? The sentence continues: "the afflictions of Christ".

In other words, what is lacking in us is the afflictions of Christ that we should suffer as Christ did.

Philippians 1:29 "For to you it has been granted on behalf of Christ, not only to believe in Him, but also to suffer for His sake"

That would be my guess.

[Guest]

This verse is somewhat difficult for many people. I had never heard the explanation before that Sean suggested above, but I think it is interesting, and could be correct. Thus when Paul said, "I...fill up in my flesh what is lacking in the afflictions of Christ," that last phrase would be understood to mean "what is lacking [in me] in [terms of] the afflictions of Christ." I don't know off hand whether the Greek grammar allows for this, but it sounds like it could be possible.

I have always, in the past, considered that the meaning could be understood with reference to the phrase following: "...for the sake of His body, which is the church." In that Christ is one with His people and is identified with them as a head is with its own body, He continues to suffer in the suffering of His people (Isa.63:9/ Acts 9:4/ Matt.25:40, 45). There is a sum total of persecution and suffering that He must endure (through His people's suffering) before the whole church has come to salvation. Paul saw his own suffering for the Gospel as filling up his portion of that total amount.

If this is true, it would not be saying that Christ's suffering through the church is the same or accomplishes the same thing as did His suffering in the days of His flesh. His suffering in the flesh was for propitiation; our suffering (His suffering in us) is for propagation. The salvation of the whole church of God requires both—that Christ first suffer for our propitiation, and then that He/we continue to suffer in the course of propagating the Gospel in a resistant world.

On this view, Christ has finished with His propitiary suffering, but He is not finished suffering entirely, as the afflictions of His people in their obedience is a continuation of His affliction.

[Guest]

Henry
Possible answer. For your consideration only.
Jesus, among other things, interceded at the cross for us.
We, may be said to continue in that intercession through
prayer evangelism, etc. Philipians 3:10 talks about the fellowship of his suffering, so that Paul could know the
power of his resurrection. Power for what? The ministry
to Christ's body, the church. II Corinthians 11, starting
at verse 23, Paul talks about some things he had
been through, leading to chapter 12, talking about
revelation, and power. Again, revelation and power
for the church. Paul wrote 13 (or 14) books of
the New Testament, opened up the Gospel to
Europe, to site two things that might be said to be
"lacking", and suffering is automatic with Christ's work.

[Guest]

Grammatically it's "I complete what is lacking of Christ's inflictions".

"Christ's inflictions" is in the genitive case in Greek, and so the above translation would be correct.

In my opinion, Steve's previous understanding of the matter approximates what Paul actually meant.

Steve, would you consider looking carefully at the word that the AV
translates as "propitiation"? I think translating the Greek word in that way is a gross error. Christ's sacrifice was not a propitiation to appease the wrath of an angry God. That's the way of the heathen. They were always trying to appease their gods so that they wouldn't harm them.

Even Moses and Aaron asked Pharoah to let them go with his people into the desert to sacrifice to Yahweh, lest He bring harm upon them.

Exodus 5:3 Then [Moses and Aaron] said, "The God of the Hebrews has met with us; let us go, we pray, a three days’ journey into the wilderness, and sacrifice to Yahweh our God, lest he fall upon us with pestilence or with the sword."

Where did Moses and Aaron learn such a thing? They didn't learn it from God, for God said:

For in the day that I brought them out of the land of Egypt, I did not speak to your fathers or command them concerning burnt offerings and sacrifices. But this command I gave them, ‘Obey my voice, and I will be your God, and you shall be my people; and walk in all the way that I command you, that it may be well with you.’ Jeremiah 7:22,23

My guess is that Moses learned propitiating sacrifices from the Egyptians themselves, as he was raised by Pharoah's daughter.

[Guest]

I know this is an old thread but I couldn't resist. This passage brings back memories of a men's bible study years ago. We were learning the didactic method of study and I had to complete this passage without the use of commentaries, study aids, or even other scripture references and speak on it at a men's breakfast. This verse was the most difficult portion of this whole book for me. I probably slaughtered the verse, but I gave it my best shot. Anyway, it went something like this:

Christ's "afflictions" on the cross accomplished all that is necessary for all men to be saved.

So what's lacking?...the fulfillment of bringing in all that will come to faith. In other words, the "filling up" of the body of Christ. Similar to the phrase "fullness of the Gentiles" in Romans 11. The task remains to get the message out to all those who will come. That's the only thing lacking. The invitation to the banquet is there, now we just need guests.

Paul rejoices because he considers it a good trade to personally suffer for the fulfillment of this cause and that suffering cannot be compared to reward of the outcome (Glorifying God).

Anyway, that was my humble crack at it 6 years ago, and what's strange is that I never went back to see what it actually meant until now. My Pastor said he liked it, but he may have just been trying to be polite.

I like some of the answers you all gave. Thanks for the memories.