I was thinking about this passage yesterday and thought about calling The Narrow Path but didn't end up having the time.
I've always heard this verse mentioned by preachers in referring to the imputed righteousness of Christ. In other words, since Jesus paid the price for our sins, by faith in Him, we can now receive His imputed righteousness individually. It's my understanding that this view originated with the Reformation.
I'm not too sure I necessarily disagree with the underlying implications of that doctrine, but I'm not too sure about using this passage (2 Cor. 5:21) as a prooftext for it.
When I consider what I hear preachers say about it, it sounds as though they really want the verse to say this:
For He made Jesus who knew no sin take the guilt of our sin for us so that each of us might receive the righteousness of God from Him.
But we know that isn't what the verse says!
Is the following a possibly viable interpretation?
He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us - This is referring to the work of Christ taking the old man's (Adam) place. He is the new Adam.
that WE might - now perhaps, he is speaking of individuals here, as he did in 2 Cor 5:17... but perhaps not. He seems to be speaking of the corporate body of Christ in the verses previous (2 Cor 5:18-20).
become the righteousness of God - the body of Christ partakes of the righteousness of God, who is Christ (1 Cor 1:30), the Head of the body.
in Him - it's only being a part of the body of Christ that we partake of the Head's righteousness. It is IN Him.
I suppose this also has ramifications upon understanding the old man/new man controversy about whether it's speaking of a "sinful nature" or of a corporate body. I didn't hear about different interpretations on passages such as Col 3:9-11, Eph 4:22-24, or Rom 13:14 until I attended Steve's school. I'm just wondering about certain passages in Romans (such as Rom 3:21-4:25) which seem to support the doctrine of imputed righteousness. I'm not really sure about the implications of a different interpretation of those passages (if there must be) nor am I sure about the different end results of looking at it in a more corporate sense. Is this basically just a different way of saying the same thing? I've heard that N.T. Wright has some different perspectives on Paul. Is this touching somewhere on what he says?
Corporate or Individually Imputed Righteousness?(2 Cor 5:21)
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RICHinCHRIST
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Re: Corporate or Individually Imputed Righteousness?(2 Cor 5:21)
Let's consider the sentence which follows:
1 ¶ Working together with him, then, we appeal to you not to receive the grace of God in vain. (2 Corinthians 6:1)
I know it's the next chapter, and that the sentence begins with "¶" as if a new topic were being introduced. However, Paul did not write his letter in chapters and verses. Most importantly, he used that little word "then" which links it to the previous verse, indicating that he is still speaking of the same topic. Indeed, he also links the sentence after that to the topic.
So let's consider them together:
For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God. Working together with him, then, we appeal to you not to receive the grace of God in vain. For he says, “In a favorable time I listened to you, and in a day of salvation I have helped you.” Behold, now is the favorable time; behold, now is the day of salvation.
To understand the passage, we need to recognize that salvation is deliverance from sin itself, and not merely from its consequences. Why would God want to deliver anyone from the lasting correction of the purifying fires of God, and let the person remain in sin, destroying his own life here on earth, as well as the lives of others? No, God wants to deliver people from wrongdoing (with their coöperation) so that he won't need to correct them in a very severe and painful way.
Did the angel who appeared to Joseph in a dream tell him that Mary's son Jesus would save his people from hell? No, he said:
...Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary as your wife, for that which is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. She will bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.” (Matthew 1:20,21 ESV)
The "synergy" (working together with God), expressed in the 2 Corinthian passage was also expressed by Paul in the following:
Therefore, my beloved, as you have always obeyed, so now, not only as in my presence but much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling,for it is God who works in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure.
(Phillipians 2:12,13) ESV
Salvation from sin is a process, and we work it out as we coöperate with the enabling grace of God, the grace that empowers us to overcome wrongdoing, and to work righteousness.
Paul wrote about this enabling grace in the following passage:
For the grace of God has appeared for the salvation of all people, training us to renounce impiety and worldly passions, and to live sensible, righteous, and pious lives in the present age, expecting the blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of the great God and of our Savior Jesus Christ, who gave himself for us to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people of his own who are zealous for good works. Declare these things; encourage and reprove with total command. Let no one disregard you. (Titus 2:11-15)
With these concepts in mind, let's attempt to interpret the passage under consideration:
For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God. Working together with him, then, we appeal to you not to receive the grace of God in vain. For he says, “In a favorable time I listened to you, and in a day of salvation I have helped you.” Behold, now is the favorable time; behold, now is the day of salvation.
I believe the passage speaks of neither imputed sin nor imputed righteousness. I understand it this way. Peter wrote that Christ endured (or "bore") our sins in his body on the tree so that we might die to sin and live to righteousness. I don't pretend to understand how that works, how through faith, we are able to overcome wrongdoing and to live righteous lives, because of Christ's death on the cross, and his resurrection. However, we know that Christ didn't literally BECOME sin, but rather he endured the result of sin, the insults and mockery of those who hated him, and the excruciating pain of death on the cross. This is the sense that Christ was "made" sin. He did this so that we could appropriate the enabling grace of God to overcome sin and live righteously. This is the sense in which we "become" the righteousness of God. God doesn't merely "count" us righteous (impute righteousness to us). Rather we actually become righteous, and have the grace of overcome sin. Paul indicates that we "work together with Him". God won't deliver us from sin, if we don't want to be delivered. Likewise, we cannot simply make up our minds not to sin, and carry out that intention successfully. Paul makes this clear in Romans 7 where he describes a person without this power of Christ as helpless. He may want to do the right thing in his mind, but then finds himself doing the very thing he hates. So it is necessary to work together with God in order to be delivered from sin by the grace made available to us by the death and resurrection of Christ. Then Paul urges the Corinthians not to accept the grace of God in vain. We may accept by faith the fact that Christ did die for this reason, and even begin to work out that salvation from sin. But if we choose to go back into sin again, then our accepting it is all in vain. For, as it is written, NOW is always the appropriate time for salvation. We have only NOW to be delivered from sin by the power of Christ. So we need to "work out our own salvation with fear and trembling". Christ died on the cross once and for all. But we cannot simply die to sin once and for all. Paul said, "I die daily" to show the necessity of continually dying to wrongdoing and to continually be made alive to righteousness.
1 ¶ Working together with him, then, we appeal to you not to receive the grace of God in vain. (2 Corinthians 6:1)
I know it's the next chapter, and that the sentence begins with "¶" as if a new topic were being introduced. However, Paul did not write his letter in chapters and verses. Most importantly, he used that little word "then" which links it to the previous verse, indicating that he is still speaking of the same topic. Indeed, he also links the sentence after that to the topic.
So let's consider them together:
For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God. Working together with him, then, we appeal to you not to receive the grace of God in vain. For he says, “In a favorable time I listened to you, and in a day of salvation I have helped you.” Behold, now is the favorable time; behold, now is the day of salvation.
To understand the passage, we need to recognize that salvation is deliverance from sin itself, and not merely from its consequences. Why would God want to deliver anyone from the lasting correction of the purifying fires of God, and let the person remain in sin, destroying his own life here on earth, as well as the lives of others? No, God wants to deliver people from wrongdoing (with their coöperation) so that he won't need to correct them in a very severe and painful way.
Did the angel who appeared to Joseph in a dream tell him that Mary's son Jesus would save his people from hell? No, he said:
...Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary as your wife, for that which is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. She will bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.” (Matthew 1:20,21 ESV)
The "synergy" (working together with God), expressed in the 2 Corinthian passage was also expressed by Paul in the following:
Therefore, my beloved, as you have always obeyed, so now, not only as in my presence but much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling,for it is God who works in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure.
(Phillipians 2:12,13) ESV
Salvation from sin is a process, and we work it out as we coöperate with the enabling grace of God, the grace that empowers us to overcome wrongdoing, and to work righteousness.
Paul wrote about this enabling grace in the following passage:
For the grace of God has appeared for the salvation of all people, training us to renounce impiety and worldly passions, and to live sensible, righteous, and pious lives in the present age, expecting the blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of the great God and of our Savior Jesus Christ, who gave himself for us to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people of his own who are zealous for good works. Declare these things; encourage and reprove with total command. Let no one disregard you. (Titus 2:11-15)
With these concepts in mind, let's attempt to interpret the passage under consideration:
For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God. Working together with him, then, we appeal to you not to receive the grace of God in vain. For he says, “In a favorable time I listened to you, and in a day of salvation I have helped you.” Behold, now is the favorable time; behold, now is the day of salvation.
I believe the passage speaks of neither imputed sin nor imputed righteousness. I understand it this way. Peter wrote that Christ endured (or "bore") our sins in his body on the tree so that we might die to sin and live to righteousness. I don't pretend to understand how that works, how through faith, we are able to overcome wrongdoing and to live righteous lives, because of Christ's death on the cross, and his resurrection. However, we know that Christ didn't literally BECOME sin, but rather he endured the result of sin, the insults and mockery of those who hated him, and the excruciating pain of death on the cross. This is the sense that Christ was "made" sin. He did this so that we could appropriate the enabling grace of God to overcome sin and live righteously. This is the sense in which we "become" the righteousness of God. God doesn't merely "count" us righteous (impute righteousness to us). Rather we actually become righteous, and have the grace of overcome sin. Paul indicates that we "work together with Him". God won't deliver us from sin, if we don't want to be delivered. Likewise, we cannot simply make up our minds not to sin, and carry out that intention successfully. Paul makes this clear in Romans 7 where he describes a person without this power of Christ as helpless. He may want to do the right thing in his mind, but then finds himself doing the very thing he hates. So it is necessary to work together with God in order to be delivered from sin by the grace made available to us by the death and resurrection of Christ. Then Paul urges the Corinthians not to accept the grace of God in vain. We may accept by faith the fact that Christ did die for this reason, and even begin to work out that salvation from sin. But if we choose to go back into sin again, then our accepting it is all in vain. For, as it is written, NOW is always the appropriate time for salvation. We have only NOW to be delivered from sin by the power of Christ. So we need to "work out our own salvation with fear and trembling". Christ died on the cross once and for all. But we cannot simply die to sin once and for all. Paul said, "I die daily" to show the necessity of continually dying to wrongdoing and to continually be made alive to righteousness.
Paidion
Man judges a person by his past deeds, and administers penalties for his wrongdoing. God judges a person by his present character, and disciplines him that he may become righteous.
Avatar shows me at 75 years old. I am now 83.
Man judges a person by his past deeds, and administers penalties for his wrongdoing. God judges a person by his present character, and disciplines him that he may become righteous.
Avatar shows me at 75 years old. I am now 83.
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RICHinCHRIST
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Re: Corporate or Individually Imputed Righteousness?(2 Cor 5:21)
You make some good points Paidion. I've read some of your posts over the past few months when I joined the forum about 7 months ago. I'm glad you're back! I'm not convinced that universalism is true, but I do agree with your comments on present deliverance from sin. I've been reading Hannah Whitall Smith's book "The Christian's Secret of a Happy Life" (as encouraged by Steve Gregg), and she often emphasizes that.. it is an awesome truth!
You make some great points about the context of that passage. I just wonder about Romans 3:21 through Romans chapter 4. What do you think about that passage? It seems to be speaking of an imputed righteousness through faith in Christ and uses Abraham as an example. I'm currently going through NT Wright's "Romans in a Week" teaching but haven't gotten that far yet. I hear he has some different interpretations of those passages.. perhaps I should just wait til I get that far in his lectures!
You make some great points about the context of that passage. I just wonder about Romans 3:21 through Romans chapter 4. What do you think about that passage? It seems to be speaking of an imputed righteousness through faith in Christ and uses Abraham as an example. I'm currently going through NT Wright's "Romans in a Week" teaching but haven't gotten that far yet. I hear he has some different interpretations of those passages.. perhaps I should just wait til I get that far in his lectures!
Re: Corporate or Individually Imputed Righteousness?(2 Cor 5:21)
Okay, Rich. I've been asked some time ago to explain that passage. I didn't do so, but I will do so. However, before I do, would you explain the following passage from the same letter of Paul, but in chapter 2. Surely Paul does not contradict himself. If Paul means means imputed righteousness in 3:21 through 4, and if works do not count, then how is the following passage consistent with that concept?
For he will render to everyone according to his works: to those who by perseverance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, he will give lasting life; but for those who are self-seeking and are not persuaded by the truth, but are persuaded by wickedness, there will be wrath and fury.
Affliction and anguish for every person who does evil ... but glory and honour and well-being for every one who does good ... For God shows no partiality. (Romans 2:6-11)
In this passage, Paul seems to say that if we persevere in righteous living, we will have lasting life, but if we are self-seeking and are wicked, we will reap God's wrath and fury. Does Paul teach "works righteousness" in this passage? Does he really teach that lasting life results from living righteously, and that living wickedly results in God's wrath? If not, what does Paul teach when he makes these statements?
For he will render to everyone according to his works: to those who by perseverance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, he will give lasting life; but for those who are self-seeking and are not persuaded by the truth, but are persuaded by wickedness, there will be wrath and fury.
Affliction and anguish for every person who does evil ... but glory and honour and well-being for every one who does good ... For God shows no partiality. (Romans 2:6-11)
In this passage, Paul seems to say that if we persevere in righteous living, we will have lasting life, but if we are self-seeking and are wicked, we will reap God's wrath and fury. Does Paul teach "works righteousness" in this passage? Does he really teach that lasting life results from living righteously, and that living wickedly results in God's wrath? If not, what does Paul teach when he makes these statements?
Paidion
Man judges a person by his past deeds, and administers penalties for his wrongdoing. God judges a person by his present character, and disciplines him that he may become righteous.
Avatar shows me at 75 years old. I am now 83.
Man judges a person by his past deeds, and administers penalties for his wrongdoing. God judges a person by his present character, and disciplines him that he may become righteous.
Avatar shows me at 75 years old. I am now 83.
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RICHinCHRIST
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Re: Corporate or Individually Imputed Righteousness?(2 Cor 5:21)
I've thought the same things in those passages. I don't necessarily believe in imputed righteousness.. that's why I created this thread to see if it's taught in the 2 corinthians passage first mentioned. I did a little bit more thinking about it and found that the other passage I would think of to defend the doctrine would be Romans 3 and 4. You bring up some good points. I've wrestled with the idea for a long time about faith and works. I think they are more interconnected than I'm able to describe, since it will be our works which will be judged by God. However, we're not saved by works, we're saved by grace through faith (Eph. 2:8-9). I think that true faith will inevitably bring good works along with it, but I think they are still separate from one another yet still intertwined quite closely. We don't work to the cross for atonement, we work from the cross in light of the atonement. What do you think?Paidion wrote:Okay, Rich. I've been asked some time ago to explain that passage. I didn't do so, but I will do so. However, before I do, would you explain the following passage from the same letter of Paul, but in chapter 2. Surely Paul does not contradict himself. If Paul means means imputed righteousness in 3:21 through 4, and if works do not count, then how is the following passage consistent with that concept?
For he will render to everyone according to his works: to those who by perseverance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, he will give lasting life; but for those who are self-seeking and are not persuaded by the truth, but are persuaded by wickedness, there will be wrath and fury.
Affliction and anguish for every person who does evil ... but glory and honour and well-being for every one who does good ... For God shows no partiality. (Romans 2:6-11)imputed rig
In this passage, Paul seems to say that if we persevere in righteous living, we will have lasting life, but if we are self-seeking and are wicked, we will reap God's wrath and fury. Does Paul teach "works righteousness" in this passage? Does he really teach that lasting life results from living righteously, and that living wickedly results in God's wrath? If not, what does Paul teach when he makes these statements?
Re: Corporate or Individually Imputed Righteousness?(2 Cor 5:21)
I think you may be on to something, Rich. Keep on it.
Re: Corporate or Individually Imputed Righteousness?(2 Cor 5:21)
Hello Rich, Don, Steve, et al -
Excerpt from Interview with N.T. Wright (about 1/4 down page) -
So w/r/t 2 Cor 5:21 -
Wright is saying that the "we" Paul was referring to was himself and other apostles and/or evangelists. That God's righteousness/ covenant faithfulness was being made known through "we" (them). We can apply this also to "us" (though we are not the original messengers) - God has made us ministers of a new covenant.
We are embodying the covenant faithfulness of God.
"God's-Righteousness-Faithfulness-Declarers"
Makes exegetical sense to me.
What NTW said.
(Pretty much like what Paidion said)....
Edited in (NTW pdf, from 1993) -
Becoming the Righteousness of God
Thanks!
Excerpt from Interview with N.T. Wright (about 1/4 down page) -
This article's fairly old (2003). I'd further recommend Wright's book Justification: God's Plan & Paul's Vision. I read it a few months ago. Excellent! I found this quote for easy posting. Otherwise, I'll re-check what NTW has in there, and possibly post some from it. However, just from memory, the above quote is basically what's "in" the book.NTW wrote:The imputation of Christ’s righteousness is one of the big sticking points for sure. I think I know exactly what the doctrine is about and I believe you don’t lose anything by the route I propose. The force of what people have believed when they have used the idea of imputation is completely retained in what I have tried to do. Why? Because in Christ we have all the treasures, not only of wisdom and knowledge (Colossians 1, and also I Corinthians 1), but in whom we have the entire package, meaning sanctification and wisdom, as well as righteousness. So Paul’s theology of being in Christ gives you all of that. But the fact that it gives you more than that does rock you back on your heels a bit and prompt you to ask, “Have we made too much of this one thing called righteousness?” The key text, which is 2 Corinthians 5:21, has been read for generations, ever since Luther at least, as an isolated, detached statement of the wondrous exchange. When we do this we forget that the entire passage, for the three chapters that led up to it, and the chapter and a half that follow it (chapter six and the beginning of seven) are about apostleship. These are all about the strange way in which the suffering of the apostle somehow is transmuted into the revelation of God’s glory. In the middle of this the statement occurs that God “made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.” After this I started to read dikaiosune theou (“the righteousness of God”) as “covenant faithfulness” in Romans. I then suddenly thought, “wait a minute.” What about 2 Corinthians 5:21? And then I realized that the whole thing here is 2 Corinthians 3, the new covenant. God has made us ministers of a new covenant. We are embodying the covenant faithfulness of God. I can see how frustrating it is for a preacher who has preached his favorite sermon all these years on the imputation of Christ’s righteousness from 2 Corinthians 5:21 to hear that this is not the right way to understand it but I actually think that there’s an even better sermon waiting to be preached. You can always preach one on 1 Corinthians 1:30 so long as you do wisdom, sanctification, and redemption, all three.
So w/r/t 2 Cor 5:21 -
Wright is saying that the "we" Paul was referring to was himself and other apostles and/or evangelists. That God's righteousness/ covenant faithfulness was being made known through "we" (them). We can apply this also to "us" (though we are not the original messengers) - God has made us ministers of a new covenant.
We are embodying the covenant faithfulness of God.
"God's-Righteousness-Faithfulness-Declarers"
Makes exegetical sense to me.
What NTW said.
(Pretty much like what Paidion said)....
Edited in (NTW pdf, from 1993) -
Becoming the Righteousness of God
Thanks!
Re: Corporate or Individually Imputed Righteousness?(2 Cor 5:21)
I don't think the NT teaches any form of the 'imputation of Christ's righteousness' at all, but I'm not sure what 2 Cor. 5:21 means.
Re: Corporate or Individually Imputed Righteousness?(2 Cor 5:21)
I don't think the NT teaches any form of the 'imputation of Christ's righteousness' at all, but I'm not sure what 2 Cor. 5:21 means.
I'm not quite clear what Jesus death and resurrection was for from this thread. Isa 53 says he was a "sin sacrifice" and Mary was told "for he will save men from their sins." In what way? As an example for us? To pay for our sins up to the point we recognize him as Lord but after that we have to save ourselves by enough good works?
I have believed works to be the fruit of salvation yet if we actually have to work out our salvation with fear and trembling it's hard for me to know how Jesus saves us from our sins.
I'm not quite clear what Jesus death and resurrection was for from this thread. Isa 53 says he was a "sin sacrifice" and Mary was told "for he will save men from their sins." In what way? As an example for us? To pay for our sins up to the point we recognize him as Lord but after that we have to save ourselves by enough good works?
I have believed works to be the fruit of salvation yet if we actually have to work out our salvation with fear and trembling it's hard for me to know how Jesus saves us from our sins.
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RICHinCHRIST
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Re: Corporate or Individually Imputed Righteousness?(2 Cor 5:21)
steve7150 wrote: I'm not quite clear what Jesus death and resurrection was for from this thread. Isa 53 says he was a "sin sacrifice" and Mary was told "for he will save men from their sins." In what way? As an example for us? To pay for our sins up to the point we recognize him as Lord but after that we have to save ourselves by enough good works?
I have believed works to be the fruit of salvation yet if we actually have to work out our salvation with fear and trembling it's hard for me to know how Jesus saves us from our sins.
It's true that Jesus has atoned for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the whole world (1 John 2:2). Although Jesus did die to free us from the punishment for our sins, the verse you quoted (Matt 1:21) says that Jesus came to save us from our sins themselves, not solely the consequence for our committing them. This truth may presently be appropriated unsuccessfully on our end since we have a tendency to fail despite the overwhelming grace and power of God which is ours in Christ to overcome sin.
We don't need to have an "imputed righteousness" in order to be saved. My argument in the first post is that we partake of Christ's righteousness and therefore we can benefit from everything we have been given IN Christ. This would include the ability to partake of the divine nature, the fruits of the Holy Spirit, and all that flows from that connection we have to the Vine as branches grafted in. I suppose it's more that we are UNITED with Christ's righteousness, rather than us RECEIVING an imputation of that righteousness. However, Paidion gave a good exegesis on what the passage may be referring to in context, and I think Rick's pasting of NT Wright's thoughts on the passage give us a more holistic understanding of what we partake of in Christ. It's not solely righteousness that we partake in, but wisdom, sanctification, knowledge, etc. etc. There are so many benefits to us being IN Christ. And when we are IN Him, we partake of Him. This will inevitably lead to a life of overcoming sin and eternal life, as long as we abide. We don't have to atone for our own sins when we don't have an imputed righteousness, we just have to remain IN HIM who has the righteousness, and that righteousness will not solely be a state of pardon but of a practical execution of that righteousness in our daily lives as we are transformed into that same image.