1 John 5:4 Wkat does "overcome the world" mean?

[SamIam]

For everyone who has been born of God overcomes the world. And this is the victory that has overcome the world--our faith. 1 John 5:4 ESV

A simple question for you Bible students. What does John have in mind by "overcomes the world?" Is it past, present or future? Is it justification or sanctification? I'm not even sure I am asking the right questions.

Thanks.

[Paidion]

I think that in the New Testament, the word κοσμος, often translated as "world" is frequently a reference to the world system. For example, when we are told not to be "conformed to the world" it is not talking about being conformed to the globe on which we live, but to the world system which tries to shape us into its mold by social pressure.

The NT teaches us that it is through faith that we can appropriate the death of Christ in order to overcome sin and live righteously. So it seems reasonable to understand that we can also overcome the world system which tries to pressure us to conform. Rather than conforming, we are to be transformed, by the renewing of our minds.

[TK]

i agree completely with Paidion. well said!

TK

[NORTH]

.

[RND]

Jacobs name, which means "swindler" was changed to "Israel" because Jacob prevailed in seeking a blessing from God. That word in Genesis 32:28 for "prevailed" (yakol) has in one of it's meanings "overcome." In that sense Israel means literally "overcomer."

It is easy then to see that Jesus is "Israel" made flesh when He tells you, me and the disciples, "These things I have spoken unto you, that in me ye might have peace. In the world ye shall have tribulation: but be of good cheer;

I have overcome

the world." - John 16:33

That word for overcome is the Greek is nikaw and it means (you guessed it) "prevail." I think the answer to the OP can be found then in the very next verse:

1John 5:5 Who is he that overcometh the world, but he that believeth that Jesus is the Son of God?

We "overcome" by believing in He that "overcame" - the Son of God, Jesus Christ.

[Jill]

.

[RND]

Jacobs name, which means "swindler" was changed to "Israel" because Jacob prevailed in seeking a blessing from God. That word in Genesis 32:28 for "prevailed" (yakol) has in one of it's meanings "overcome." In that sense Israel means literally "overcomer."

It is easy then to see that Jesus is "Israel" made flesh when He tells you, me and the disciples, "These things I have spoken unto you, that in me ye might have peace. In the world ye shall have tribulation: but be of good cheer;

I have overcome

the world." - John 16:33

That word for overcome is the Greek is nikaw and it means (you guessed it) "prevail." I think the answer to the OP can be found then in the very next verse:

1John 5:5 Who is he that overcometh the world, but he that believeth that Jesus is the Son of God?

We "overcome" by believing in He that "overcame" - the Son of God, Jesus Christ.

I Couldn't agree with this more.

Cool!

(But I still see no necessity for his torturous end except that anyone who publicly announced that they were the Messiah or the Lord of the Jew would be put to death in this way. Does "overcoming the world" include having to be tortured like this? No.I do not think so.)

Blame Satan.

See: (just one I guess ) LDS/The Atonement (unplugged).

[/quote]