The Narrow Path Ministries

I've always been taught that God loves all people unconditionally, but Exodus 20:6, John 15:10, and Jude 1:21 sure make it look conditional.

I've looked at commentaries and it seems those who are reformed say, "The Bible never says God loves all people unconditionally." On the other hand, they say, "God loves the elect unconditionally." So I still don't know what to do with the verses above!

Other commentators say this doesn't mean what it says because humans are the only ones to place conditions on love. So I still don't know what to do with the verses above if I want to believe the writers probably meant what they said.

I think the answer to this dilemma is to recognize that words are far more flexible than we'd sometimes like them to be. Nuance is almost always needed to speak with any sort of precision. We know that 'God is love' and that God 'does not show favoritism.' So, in a very real sense, God loves all people unconditionally. But we also use the term 'love' in a bunch of different ways.

In Exodus 20:6, it seems to me, the contrast is between punishing and blessing. God punishes the wicked. God blesses the righteous. The verse just happens to use the word 'love' instead of blessing. One could easily argue that the 'punishment' dished out towards those who hate God is also a form of loving discipline.

In John 15:10, it seems to me, the word 'love' is being used as a synonym for 'right relationship.' We stay in right relationship with God by obeying God's commands. This sets us up for the most pleasant experience of God's love. Those who don't obey God's commands aren't in right relationship with God. Love is a 2 way street.

In Jude 1:21, it seems to me, the emphasis is on us doing the things we need to do to stay in right relationship with God. We must build ourselves up. We must pray. We must stay in God's love. I think it is comparable to something that comes a few chapters later (Revelation 2) when Jesus tells the church in Ephesus they have forsaken their first love and need to do the things they did at first.

In some ways all of this is rather complicated (it's frustrating to work with words that can be used so flexibly). But in other ways, we must recognize that we, ourselves, choose to do this all the time with words... even words like love. In a sense, I might be justified to say that I'm only in a 'loving relationship' with my spouse (if the context of the statement is marriage/romance). But that wouldn't mean I don't love all people (or at least try). Or, I might say I only LOVE God (if the context is our primary allegiance). But that wouldn't mean I don't love my wife, family, friends, or even enemies.

Because words are so flexible, it is not even improper to say that God hates certain people. We like to tidy things up by saying 'hate the sin, love the sinner.' And I think there is merit to that sort of technical distinction. But the language we actually use in real life (and that the Bible uses) is not always so tidy.

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mattrose, it seems your point about nuances could be true but I hesitate because the fact that two new testament writers say that God's love (agape) is conditional seems significant. (It seems the case could be made that Exodus 20:6 has more to do with God's mercy/kindness (hesed) being contingent upon the love (aheb) we have for him.)

Is it possible that somewhere along the way we have changed the definition of agape from "love" to "unconditional love"? I've looked in several Bible dictionaries and for agape they say "love, goodwill" (expressed as preference/deliberate choice), but I haven't run across one that defines agape as "unconditional love."

dizerner, In Matthew 5:43-48 we are told to love like God who causes the sun to rise and the rain to fall on both the righteous and unrighteous. But maybe God loves everyone in a general sense but he REALLY LOVES those who obey him.

• For God so loved the world in a deliberate way, that he...

• or

• For God so loved the world in an unconditional way, that he...

• 

For God so loved the world...

The word "world" is not modified. Thus God loved ALL of the world as a precedent for giving his only-begotten Son. The condition for having lasting life is believing (or trusting) in the Son. No condition is given for God's love itself. God's love is unconditional.

Paidion,
I agree that God does love all people at some level. But it does seem that he doesn't love all people in the same way. From John 15:10 and Jude 1:21 it seems that God has a certain love reserved for those who remain in him.

It seems probable that God loves in degrees just like we do.

I agree that God does love all people at some level. But it does seem that he doesn't love all people in the same way. From John 15:10 and Jude 1:21 it seems that God has a certain love reserved for those who remain in him.

Those two verses appear to support your thesis.

psimmond wrote:Paidion,
I agree that God does love all people at some level. But it does seem that he doesn't love all people in the same way. From John 15:10 and Jude 1:21 it seems that God has a certain love reserved for those who remain in him.

It seems probable that God loves in degrees just like we do.

My only argument was that God does love all people. I also agree that God doesn't love all people in the same way. God's love towards all people is unconditional (that's why it is towards ALL people). But obviously the experience of that love is reserved for those who relate back to God in love. Love is a 2 way street.

Whether we talk about it in terms of one's 'experience' of God's love or in terms of 'degrees' of God's love is, in my opinion, more a matter of semantics. It seems to me we both agree that God loves all people in one sense and that all people are loved by God in a way that fits the current status of their relationship with God.

What verse or verses would we use that would prove that God continuously and unconditionally loves every person in particular? When we consider John 3:16, for example, "loved" is aorist indicating an act at a point in time, and "world" is singular and might refer to the human race as a whole:

“For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life."

Can it be proven from scripture that, although God desires all people to be saved, He never ceases to love any individuals in particular? The whole of the context of John 3:16 implies that some will not believe and will perish. If agapao means "be benevolent to", how could God cause them to perish and at the same time be benevolent to those perishing?

Hi all, Yeshua said that blasphemy against The Holy Spirit would not be forgiven in the age to come. However, we know there are more ages beyond the age Yeshua was referring to, therefore, whatever happens to the unbeliever, at death, during this period shouldn't apply to future ages.

If UR is true, God's love and righteous justice towards the unrepentant may very well have a happy ending for those who die in their sins during this age, to have forgiveness in the ages beyond. Just a thought

God Bless.


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Robby Young
U.S. Army Retired