God as Mediator
Posted: Thu Apr 08, 2021 9:09 am
Here's another topic that is frequently stated as fact that deserves full consideration and its own topic. It is often said that God Himself was the mediator between Himself and mankind and it is further stated that mankind was not qualified to mediate.
First thing worth discussing since it's an underlying presupposition -- how is it (rationally) that God actually mediates between himself and mankind? That seems nonsensical and contrary to basic logic. Doesn't a mediator require a "third" entity separate from the two parties being mediated? He could be like God or like man, but couldn't be God Himself or He couldn't be a mediator. This seems like pretty basic common sense.
Isaiah 59:15-16ff is often pointed to...
"16 He saw that there was no man,
and wondered that there was no one to intercede;
then his own arm brought him salvation,
and his righteousness upheld him.
17 He put on righteousness as a breastplate,
and a helmet of salvation on his head;
he put on garments of vengeance for clothing,
and wrapped himself in zeal as a cloak."
However, God being the source of the intercessor/redeemer and being said to "bring salvation" doesn't mean he "was" the man Jesus any more than his bringing vengeance in the OT was God actually "being" the invading armies. He provided the way, it was all according to his plan and purpose, but it goes too far to read this passage as implying God was the mediator himself. Besides, what implications follow from God having to put on the helmet of salvation and so forth?
Let's look at a few verses about the redeemer/intercessor ...
1 Timothy 2:5 is about as clear a passage in this context as it gets - "For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus." The clear indication seems to be that he wasn't God, but he was a man and we know from other passages that what qualified him to be mediator was his perfection and sinlessness. One who could stand in the same nature as Adam but do what Adam failed to do.
Hebrews 8:6 further tells us that Christ obtained his ministry - not that it was inherent in his nature as God.
Matthew 28:18 further tells us that all authority in heaven and on earth was given to Christ, not that it was inherent in his nature as God.
John 17:3 tells us that Jesus Christ is not the only true God but "another" whom was sent. Not that Jesus was distinct just from the Father, but from the true God. "And this is eternal life, that they know you the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent." Ephesians 4:6 further makes clear that it is the Father who is the One God. "One God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all."
Hebrews 4:15 tells us that our High Priest is like us -- "For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin." God cannot be tempted. James 1:13 makes clear that God cannot be tempted. "Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am being tempted by God,” for God cannot be tempted with evil."
Hebrews 7:25 clearly distinguishes the intercessor from the God to whom we are drawn near. "Consequently, he is able to save to the uttermost those who draw near to God through him, since he always lives to make intercession for them."
Ephesians 2:18 tells us that it is through Christ we have access to the Father. Implicit in this passage is that the Father is the one which the intercessor is reuniting us with (in other words, God). This is consistent with so many passages stating that the Father is the one true God and that Jesus is the path through which we get to Him. "For through him we both have access in one Spirit to the Father."
2 Corinthians 5:19 " ... God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself." If God was “in Christ,” doesn’t that necessarily assume/imply that God is distinct from Christ?
First thing worth discussing since it's an underlying presupposition -- how is it (rationally) that God actually mediates between himself and mankind? That seems nonsensical and contrary to basic logic. Doesn't a mediator require a "third" entity separate from the two parties being mediated? He could be like God or like man, but couldn't be God Himself or He couldn't be a mediator. This seems like pretty basic common sense.
Isaiah 59:15-16ff is often pointed to...
"16 He saw that there was no man,
and wondered that there was no one to intercede;
then his own arm brought him salvation,
and his righteousness upheld him.
17 He put on righteousness as a breastplate,
and a helmet of salvation on his head;
he put on garments of vengeance for clothing,
and wrapped himself in zeal as a cloak."
However, God being the source of the intercessor/redeemer and being said to "bring salvation" doesn't mean he "was" the man Jesus any more than his bringing vengeance in the OT was God actually "being" the invading armies. He provided the way, it was all according to his plan and purpose, but it goes too far to read this passage as implying God was the mediator himself. Besides, what implications follow from God having to put on the helmet of salvation and so forth?
Let's look at a few verses about the redeemer/intercessor ...
1 Timothy 2:5 is about as clear a passage in this context as it gets - "For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus." The clear indication seems to be that he wasn't God, but he was a man and we know from other passages that what qualified him to be mediator was his perfection and sinlessness. One who could stand in the same nature as Adam but do what Adam failed to do.
Hebrews 8:6 further tells us that Christ obtained his ministry - not that it was inherent in his nature as God.
Matthew 28:18 further tells us that all authority in heaven and on earth was given to Christ, not that it was inherent in his nature as God.
John 17:3 tells us that Jesus Christ is not the only true God but "another" whom was sent. Not that Jesus was distinct just from the Father, but from the true God. "And this is eternal life, that they know you the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent." Ephesians 4:6 further makes clear that it is the Father who is the One God. "One God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all."
Hebrews 4:15 tells us that our High Priest is like us -- "For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin." God cannot be tempted. James 1:13 makes clear that God cannot be tempted. "Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am being tempted by God,” for God cannot be tempted with evil."
Hebrews 7:25 clearly distinguishes the intercessor from the God to whom we are drawn near. "Consequently, he is able to save to the uttermost those who draw near to God through him, since he always lives to make intercession for them."
Ephesians 2:18 tells us that it is through Christ we have access to the Father. Implicit in this passage is that the Father is the one which the intercessor is reuniting us with (in other words, God). This is consistent with so many passages stating that the Father is the one true God and that Jesus is the path through which we get to Him. "For through him we both have access in one Spirit to the Father."
2 Corinthians 5:19 " ... God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself." If God was “in Christ,” doesn’t that necessarily assume/imply that God is distinct from Christ?