John 1:1 and the Missing Article

God, Christ, & The Holy Spirit
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Homer
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John 1:1 and the Missing Article

Post by Homer » Sun Jun 06, 2021 3:56 pm

The third clause in John 1:1 is claimed as an argument that Jesus is not God because there is no article ("the") preceding God:

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."

This claim needs to be put to rest; it is debunked by the numerous places where the New Testament writers used theos in reference to God with no definite article used in the original Greek.

Examples where there is no article:
Matthew 6:24
New American Standard Bible
24 “No one can serve two masters; for either he will hate the one and love the other, or he will be devoted to one and despise the other. You cannot serve God and wealth.

Luke 3:2
New American Standard Bible
2 in the high priesthood of Annas and Caiaphas, the word of God came to John, the son of Zechariah, in the wilderness.

Luke 20:38
New American Standard Bible
38 Now He is not the God of the dead, but of the living; for all live to Him.”

Romans 8:8
New American Standard Bible
8 and those who are in the flesh cannot please God.

Romans 8:33
New American Standard Bible
33 Who will bring charges against God’s elect? God is the one who justifies;

2 Corinthians 1:21
New American Standard Bible
21 Now He who establishes us with you in Christ and anointed us is God,

2 Corinthians 5:19
New American Standard Bible
19 namely, that God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, not counting their wrongdoings against them, and He has committed to us the word of reconciliation.

2 Corinthians 6:7
New American Standard Bible
7 in the word of truth, and in the power of God; by the weapons of righteousness for the right hand

1 Thessalonians 2:5
New American Standard Bible
5 For we never came with flattering speech, as you know, nor with a pretext for greed—God is our witness—
These should be sufficient to make the point; there are more.

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Paidion
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Re: John 1:1 and the Missing Article

Post by Paidion » Sun Jun 06, 2021 6:59 pm

Homer, I will make every effort to answer your claims in this post. Until that happens, I ask you whether you agree with the following:

In EVERY instance in which "θεος" (theos) is preceded by the article "ο" (ho) and has no other modifiers, It ALWAYS refers to God the Father. See whether you can find just one counter-example in the New Testament!
Paidion

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Homer
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Re: John 1:1 and the Missing Article

Post by Homer » Sun Jun 06, 2021 8:47 pm

Hi Paidion,

John 20:28 comes to mind without much thought:

John 20:28
New American Standard Bible
28 Thomas answered and said to Him (Jesus), “My Lord (ho kurios) and my God (ho theos)!”

Note: Thomas said to Him. He wasn't just speaking into the air!

Literally Thomas said "the Lord of me and the God of me". Jesus is both Lord and God in Thomas' words. In the NT where Lord is used it always refers to Jesus except in OT quotations.

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Paidion
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Re: John 1:1 and the Missing Article

Post by Paidion » Mon Jun 07, 2021 9:53 am

Hi Homer,you wrote:John 20:28 comes to mind without much thought:

John 20:28
New American Standard Bible
28 Thomas answered and said to Him (Jesus), “My Lord (ho kurios) and my God (ho theos)!”
Without much thought? Well, perhaps a little more thought should have been given.
I specified "has no other modifiers" underlining it so that you wouldn't bring up such examples.
Your example does have another modifier. "My God" is the translation of "ο θεος μου" (the God of me).
Besides "o", the other modifier of "θεος" is "μου".
Paidion

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Homer
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Re: John 1:1 and the Missing Article

Post by Homer » Mon Jun 07, 2021 11:36 am

Paidion, you wrote:
Your example does have another modifier. "My God" is the translation of "ο θεος μου" (the God of me).
Besides "o", the other modifier of "θεος" is "μου".
So what is your point?

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Paidion
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Re: John 1:1 and the Missing Article

Post by Paidion » Mon Jun 07, 2021 2:25 pm

My point is to affirm what I asked you yesterday:

In EVERY instance in which "θεος" (theos) is preceded by the article "ο" (ho) and has no other modifiers, It ALWAYS refers to God the Father. See whether you can find just one counter-example in the New Testament!


Is it the case that you can find none? if so, it appears that my statement is true.

When you have recognized this, I will then begin to discuss those passages you offered in which there is no article before "θεος"
and which you believe to refer to God the Father.
Paidion

Man judges a person by his past deeds, and administers penalties for his wrongdoing. God judges a person by his present character, and disciplines him that he may become righteous.

Avatar shows me at 75 years old. I am now 83.

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Homer
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Re: John 1:1 and the Missing Article

Post by Homer » Mon Jun 07, 2021 5:54 pm

Paidion,

I made my point, it is up to you to refute it.

commonsense
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Re: John 1:1 and the Missing Article

Post by commonsense » Tue Jun 08, 2021 12:08 am

Homer wrote:
Sun Jun 06, 2021 3:56 pm
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
.

Homer, this is the word of God: "Love God, and Love others as yourself."

Jesus was THIS WORD( the Law of God) in the flesh. He was the "living" word.

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Paidion
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Re: John 1:1 and the Missing Article

Post by Paidion » Tue Jun 08, 2021 4:34 pm

Homer wrote:Paidion,

I made my point, it is up to you to refute it.
I told you that I would begin to refute it, after you acknowleged my point. But instead, since your attempted refutation failed, you now want it ignored.
Paidion

Man judges a person by his past deeds, and administers penalties for his wrongdoing. God judges a person by his present character, and disciplines him that he may become righteous.

Avatar shows me at 75 years old. I am now 83.

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darinhouston
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Re: John 1:1 and the Missing Article

Post by darinhouston » Tue Jun 08, 2021 6:04 pm

Paidion wrote:
Tue Jun 08, 2021 4:34 pm
Homer wrote:Paidion,

I made my point, it is up to you to refute it.
I told you that I would begin to refute it, after you acknowleged my point. But instead, since your attempted refutation failed, you now want it ignored.
Maybe we can assume it for the sake of argument?

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