In LXX, God doesn't punish the suffering servant

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Homer
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Re: In LXX, God doesn't punish the suffering servant

Post by Homer » Sat Feb 25, 2012 11:05 am

If penal substitution doesn't make sense, this idea makes even less:
The moral government view does not have Jesus' death as a satisfaction substitute (so that God stops hating people) but as a demonstration of God's desire to convey the seriousness of sin. The cross is rather a demonstration for us to realize on the human level that God takes sin seriously.
Are we to believe the people that knew of the the fall of Adam and Eve with the resulting curse of all life, the story of the flood, the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrha, the Babylonian captivity, etc., etc., all the result of sin, needed Jesus to die on a cross so that they would know God took sin seriously?

Do not the blood sacrifices, scapegoat, etc. of the Law prefigure Christ? Do they teach us anything?

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RICHinCHRIST
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Re: In LXX, God doesn't punish the suffering servant

Post by RICHinCHRIST » Sat Feb 25, 2012 12:35 pm

homer wrote:Are we to believe the people that knew of the the fall of Adam and Eve with the resulting curse of all life, the story of the flood, the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrha, the Babylonian captivity, etc., etc., all the result of sin, needed Jesus to die on a cross so that they would know God took sin seriously?

Do not the blood sacrifices, scapegoat, etc. of the Law prefigure Christ? Do they teach us anything?
I did not intend my comments to be the only explanation of the moral government view, but only as the general principle behind it.

Penal substitution sees Jesus as taking the precise punishment that sin deserves in order for God to forgive people.

The governmental view sees Jesus as not taking the exact punishment for sin, but as dying in place of the punishment than sin deserved. There is still a substitution in the governmental view, but it is not on the basis of the nature of the penalty. The reason why I posted the link earlier was so that one could become familiar with the position. If you understood the nature of the governmental view, you would know that my above comments are not the be-all and end-all of the perspective.

If penal substitution is true, Homer, then could you answer my following questions (according to your view of hell):

1) If Jesus took the exact punishment that sin deserved, is Jesus suffering in hell right now for eternity?
2) If annihilation (or the punishment that leads up to it) is what sin deserves, when was Jesus annihilated? Annihilation includes the idea that one is forever lost. Is Jesus lost right now?

The governmental view sees the cross as a means for God to avoid punishing sin completely. The following quotes are from that wikipedia article I posted earlier:

"Atonement is, properly, an arrangement by which the literal infliction of the penalty due to sin may be avoided; it is something which may be substituted in the place of punishment. It is that which will answer the same end secured by the literal infliction of the penalty of the law… The atonement is the governmental provision for the forgiveness of sins, providing man meets the conditions of repentance and faith towards our Lord Jesus Christ." - Harry Conn (Four Trojan Horses, p. 80-81)

"The atonement is a governmental expedient to sustain law without the execution of its penalty to the sinner." Charles G. Finney (The Oberlin Evangelist; July 30, 1856; On the Atonement, p. 2)

"His sufferings were in the place of the penalty, not the penalty itself. They were a substitution for the penalty, and were, therefore, strictly and properly vicarious, and were not the identical sufferings which the sinner would himself have endured. There are some things in the penalty of the Law, which the Lord Jesus did not endure, and which a substitute or a vicarious victim could not endure. Remorse of conscience is a part of the inflicted penalty of the Law, and will be a vital part of the sufferings of the sinner in hell - but the Lord Jesus did not endure that. Eternity of sufferings is an essential part of the penalty of the Law - but the Lord Jesus did not suffer forever. Thus, there are numerous sorrows connected with the consciousness of personal guilt, which the Lord Jesus did not and cannot endure." Albert Barnes (Commentary on Galatians 3:13)

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Homer
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Re: In LXX, God doesn't punish the suffering servant

Post by Homer » Sat Feb 25, 2012 10:35 pm

Rich,

I have no problem with your response. :D

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Re: In LXX, God doesn't punish the suffering servant

Post by RICHinCHRIST » Sun Feb 26, 2012 1:10 am

Homer wrote:Rich,

I have no problem with your response.
:)

After hearing that perspective, it made more sense to me. In penal substitution, there is this idea that God cannot accept the fact that He has been wronged, but rather must inflict His anger on some party. I was thinking about this earlier. Does God ever have to deny Himself? He commands us to deny ourselves, but that is primarily because we have sinful tendencies and ones which separate us from loving God and others. But God, in His infinite glory, when His attributes or desires conflict, does He have the freedom to choose what He wants to do? Penal substitution seems to portray God's character in a way that He cannot control His anger. Am I saying His anger is sinful? Not at all. It is completely just and pure. But despite the fact that God is completely justified in punishing sinners to the fullest extent, it appears that this is not what God ultimately intends to do. He takes no pleasure in giving people what they deserve, because death is what they deserve. And if He doesn't want anyone to die, but wills that all be saved and come to repentance, this brings us to a conflict. It would seem (according to pure logic) that the right thing for God to do to uphold His nature is to punish sin. But the fact that God is willing to show mercy seems to override His absolute right to punish sinners. The psalms often say things like "His anger is but for a moment", or "He will not be angry forever", "His lovingkindness is over all His works", etc. (Now that I think upon this, perhaps the cross is God's denial of Himself in the Trinity)

But penal substitution denies this. Penal substitution portrays that God cannot contain His anger, but that He must inflict it (albeit on Jesus if He must... in order to, you know, put that mercy He wants to put on people but just can't convince Himself to do unless He drinks someone's blood as insulin in order to stabilize His diabetic wrath levels). Crass, I know. But is it hard to not interpret it that way? Some who hold to the governmental view may still even interpret the character of God in such a way, but it sounds quite abhorrent to me.

The reason people grasp penal substitution so tightly is because if Jesus didn't really act as a perfect "substitute", then in some way sin was not fully punished. And I must say I agree. God overlooked sin in one sense (because the punishment was not inflicted fully), but He also demonstrated His abhorrence of it at the same time. God was able to overlook the punishment of sin by letting Christ die in place of the punishment. I do not believe that this is because God could not have forgiven without Christ dying, but rather that He sent Christ to die in order to complete His redemption program (for other reasons than giving Himself peace about resisting the urge to torch sinners). In this sense I lean toward Christus Victor, but I also see the validity of the governmental view, since it portrays God's willingness to call sin for what it is.

Penal substitution says: God cannot freely forgive until He justly punishes someone (even if it's Himself).
The Bible's portrayal of Divine love: God can freely forgive anything instead of justly punishing since it is not His ultimate desire to punish.

Hebrews 2 says Jesus tasted death for everyone (Heb 2:9). This is certainly not that He died the death that every man deserved. If He did, then He would have to die on the cross millions of times (once for every sinner who gets saved). Advocates of penal substitution appeal to mystery in order to explain this. If they're right, I cannot object, but call me skeptical! It is definite that Jesus' death saved us somehow. From sin? Yes. From Satan? Yes. From the world? Yes. From retributive punishment? I'll have to go with a maybe. If it's a yes, it's definitely not the full punishment. And that makes you wonder. If God doesn't need the full punishment to satisfy His own divine pet peeve, then does He really need to get some kind of retributive punishing in at all? Would He lose something if He chose mercy over retribution? Or is it possible that His means of justice is also His means of mercy?

This last question makes me reflect on George MacDonald's description of the union of God's justice and mercy, and it still rejoices my heart. It makes sense of the seeming paradox that exists between love, justice, and mercy*. I'm not necessarily sure that retributive, punitive punishment is really God's ultimate desire for anyone. This flies as a contradiction in the face of penal substitution. Even if punitive, retributive punishment is something God would be willing to do, it seems that He more strongly desires to withhold those desires (not place them elsewhere). Somewhere in the mysterious mix Jesus' death also defeated sin, death, and the devil, thereby liberating humanity (i.e. Christus Victor, which I'm totally on board with, but I'm not necessarily willing to accept it as the only way to understand the cross).

To conclude, I still accept certain aspects of all the views as biblically consistent, only with the exception of Anselm's satisfaction theory.

*MacDonald explains this in his unspoken sermon entitled "Justice"

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