In Lecture #4, http://theos.org/media/category/28/, Steve states that the "nations" refers only to those Gentiles who "go up to the mountain of the LORD" - namely it is only those Gentiles who are informed and follow the teaching of the God's law via the church (Hebrews 12).And many people shall go and say, Come ye, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for out of Zion shall go forth the law, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem. And he shall judge among the nations, and shall rebuke many people: and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruninghooks: nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more
I understand that Steve says that this is justified because the (1) Hebrew word "Goyim" can be arbitrarily translated "Gentiles", (2) the language denoting a subset of the Gentiles from 2:3 "Many people...[shall] go up..." extends through verse 4. I am not sure either assumption is justified, in particular the first. A quick check of the word used elsewhere would suggest a meaning of "nation" which is similar to its common use in English (e.g. Gen 46:3 applies this to the Children of Abraham.).
I would like to ask if anyone can provide a more extended explanation of why this 2:4 should be understood in as fulfilled in Amil rather than premil approach.
Peter
P.S. sorry for the short/terseness of question, time is short today
Edit: Fix the verseblock