Is Israel "Preferred?"

[Othniel]

So the topic of Israel seems clear as day to me.

After researching the topic of Israel, I am fully convinced of Steve Gregg's view. The evidence seems overtly clear that the believing remnant are God's Israel, and thus the promises that God made to Abraham find their fulfillment in the Church, the true Israel.

I do have some questions though, and I would love your thoughts:

Firstly, why does the Bible constantly say things like "For the Jew first, then the Greek" (Rom 1:16)?

Romans 11:24 reads "For if you were cut out of the olive tree which is wild by nature, and were grafted contrary to nature into a cultivated olive tree, how much more will these, who [are] natural [branches], be grafted into their own olive tree?"

Does this reference indicate that Jews who come to Christ will have it better than Gentiles?

Romans 11:28 reads "Concerning the gospel [they are] enemies for your sake, but concerning the election [they are] beloved for the sake of the fathers."

The context seems to indicate that the "they" referred to is clearly non-church, ethnic Israel. In what way are they beloved for the sake of the fathers? Is the belovedness limited to them bringing forth the Christ, or is there more?

Is there any reason why Israel should get first treatment before Gentiles? If so, should that apply to today?

Secondly, I have a question about verse 25. How do you non-dispensationalists understand "until the fullness of the gentiles comes in?"

Thanks guys!

[JMTC]

In response to Romans 11:24, Let me quote Arnold Fruchtembaum from his book "The Footsteps of the Messiah" pg 95-96,

"The composition of the church, the body of Christ, is a combination of Jews and Gentiles united together by faith in Christ. This passage (Ephesians 2:11-16) makes clear that there is no such thing as a Gentile church any more than a Jewish one. The Gentiles are grafted into a Jewish olive tree and not vice verse (Romans 11:16-24). The Ephesian passage states that it is the Gentiles who are "brought near" to enjoy the blessings of the Jewish covenants, but the covenants themselves are still the possession of Israel. Thus, the Gentiles are fellow-heirs, and fellow-members of the body, and fellow-partakers of the promise of Christ Jesus through the gospel (Ephesians 3:6). The Gentiles are fellow-partakers, but not taker-overs."

I agree with Steve that the remnant will be Jewish believers.

[steve7150]

Romans 11:28 reads "Concerning the gospel [they are] enemies for your sake, but concerning the election [they are] beloved for the sake of the fathers."

The context seems to indicate that the "they" referred to is clearly non-church, ethnic Israel. In what way are they beloved for the sake of the fathers? Is the belovedness limited to them bringing forth the Christ, or is there more?

Is there any reason why Israel should get first treatment before Gentiles? If so, should that apply to today?

Secondly, I have a question about verse 25. How do you non-dispensationalists understand "until the fullness of the gentiles comes in?"

Thanks guys!

Othniel






I think the "enemies" of the gospel is obviously natural Israel so the question is what does Paul mean by "election"? My take is the election has something to do with God using Israel in Christ's first advent and i think also in his second advent.
I'm not sure what you mean by "first treatment" because although Israel was given the law, it really was a tool to demonstrate our need for Christ, so although it brought blessings to Israel it also brought curses.
Lastly IMHO the fullness of the gentiles is a reference to the church age where the full grand total of believers from the whole world would come into the fold and then "all Israel will be saved." This Israel is the Israel of God , but natural Israel will also be used of God at some point to receive Christ when he returns.
I think Psalm 83 has yet to be fulfilled as Israel enemies have never simultaneously attacked it and in this age of missiles and rockets it is possible. I think God because Israel is beloved will intervene and protect Israel, for his own namesake.

[RICHinCHRIST]

Hi Othniel,

I think that the passages you quoted in Romans are easily understood when we read Paul's heart in the first verses of Romans 10. There he describes why the jews were so privileged due to being the recipients of all the covenant promises. It seems ironic that most of the Jews who have ever lived have rejected their Messiah since they were (and are) the ones expecting and willing to accept Him. Therefore, we could say that the gospel is offered to the Jews first, because they should have the simplest access to accepting the promises associated with Christ.

regarding the fullness of the gentiles, i would suggest listening to steve's verse by verse lecture... i cant remember what he said now, but i remember it making a lot of sense.

[Othniel]

Hi Othniel,

I think that the passages you quoted in Romans are easily understood when we read Paul's heart in the first verses of Romans 10. There he describes why the jews were so privileged due to being the recipients of all the covenant promises. It seems ironic that most of the Jews who have ever lived have rejected their Messiah since they were (and are) the ones expecting and willing to accept Him. Therefore, we could say that the gospel is offered to the Jews first, because they should have the simplest access to accepting the promises associated with Christ.

regarding the fullness of the gentiles, i would suggest listening to steve's verse by verse lecture... i cant remember what he said now, but i remember it making a lot of sense.

Thanks for your post Rich

I have listened to the lecture on Romans 11 several times. It does make sense on a general level, I am still curious however regarding the word "until" and its implications.

To be honest, I'm not sure If I believe that the covenants were supposed to bestow special blessings on ethnic Israel. After all, since they found their fulfillment in Christ and those who are his rather than ethnic Israel, I'm not sure if it should mean anything special for the Jewish people.

They did however receive the Law of God (though they rejected it lol). This may or may not mean something. In Romans 10, Paul laments that they are trying to attain righteousness by the law, but doesn't say that they are preferred for receiving it.

Just my thoughts.

[RICHinCHRIST]

I'm not saying that ethnic Israel is preferred. My appeal to Romans 10 was to illustrate why the gospel should be accepted by the Jews more readily due to the fact that they already were waiting for the Messiah and had received the promises of the first covenant. Therefore, ethnic israel was not preferred, but privileged.
Paul goes into this concept in Ephesians chapter 2 when he describes the gentiles having no hope and being without God in the world. They werent expecting the Messiah at all, so they were in a less privileged state.

We can also say that the gospel was presented to the Jews first, before it was offered to the Gentiles. The earliest church was made up of only ethnic Jews. Paul could be speaking in regards to that, but I think he's just emphasizing the privilege and advantage the Jews have over Gentiles because they were already believing in the true God and were expecting the fulfillments of His promises.

[Othniel]

I'm not saying that ethnic Israel is preferred. My appeal to Romans 10 was to illustrate why the gospel should be accepted by the Jews more readily due to the fact that they already were waiting for the Messiah and had received the promises of the first covenant. Therefore, ethnic israel was not preferred, but privileged.
Paul goes into this concept in Ephesians chapter 2 when he describes the gentiles having no hope and being without God in the world. They werent expecting the Messiah at all, so they were in a less privileged state.

We can also say that the gospel was presented to the Jews first, before it was offered to the Gentiles. The earliest church was made up of only ethnic Jews. Paul could be speaking in regards to that, but I think he's just emphasizing the privilege and advantage the Jews have over Gentiles because they were already believing in the true God and were expecting the fulfillments of His promises.

That's a great answer Rich.

You're saying that they were privileged because they had been told of a coming Messiah already. They had an advantage in that they were eagerly awaiting Him while the gentiles were just living in hopelessness. That makes sense. So according to this line of thinking, the elect Jews were "beloved for the sake of their forefathers," and they became saved, a part of the elect, in part because they were born into a culture that was ready for Jesus.

This would also agree with all the verses we have about the lack of distinction. I have found that the Bible is ridiculously clear that Jews are not God's people, but those who follow God with the faith of Abraham, Christians, are God's true people.

Thanks for your post man, this helps a lot.