Question in 2 Thess 2:1-2 "Gathering together to Him.&q

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Post by _Rick_C » Fri Feb 22, 2008 12:38 am

Pmike,
I wrote:Paul neither says that the man of sin, nor those who persecuted the Thessalonian believers would, necessarily, be living when Christ returns.

You replied with:
2 Thess. 1:3-10 (with highlights in bold) and:
So Rick...70AD or still future?
Future.

The persecutors of the Thessalonian believers have not been repaid with the retribution Paul was writing about. Nor have the Thessalonian Christians come into the rest Paul described. While it may be true that all of these Thessalonian people currently experience their respective just rewards to whatever level or extent in an intermediate state (1 & 2 Thess have no teaching about an intermediate state); Paul is not writing about that here. And as I mentioned before, neither letter describes the resurrection of the ungodly, though we know Paul believed in the general resurrection on the Day of the Lord--when--both living and deceased Christians will "meet the Lord in the air" {1 Thess 4} and all people will be judged {Day of the Lord = "at the last day" in the Gospels}.

Just as in 1 Thess; in 2 Thess Paul writes with a sense of expectancy as if Christ could, or possibly (or seemingly almost?) would, return within his and their lifetimes. This is characteristic of all apocalyptic literature and/or apocalyptic sections of NT writings {the entire book of Revelation, Matt 24 and parallels, the "apocalyptic sections" in 1 & 2 Thess, etc.}. Apocalyptic can be difficult to interpret as we tend to see more than is really there {is not there}, or don't see what actually is there. I try to see ONLY what the text says and no more, which is hard to do because I was taught a lot of dispensational stuff that 'clouded my vision', so to speak. 1 & 2 Thess are a mixture of 'regular letters' and apocalyptic. Also, it seems like 2 Thess could have been written in a hurry or something like that. However, apocalyptic literature always has that sense of "impending bloom and doom". Paul "quickly shifts" from his regular letter mode into apocalyptic in both letters, especially in 2 Thess.

So, future, because this is about the second coming..."when he comes to be glorified by his saints and to be marvelled at on that day among all who have believed" {2 Thess 1:10a, NRSV}. "All who have believed" are all believers of all time.

Life application:
To me, though Paul wasn't writing directly to us in these Thessalonian letters; he taught that all Christians of all times will get their just rewards...and so will those who have or will persecute Christians: then, now, or later.
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Post by _Rick_C » Fri Feb 22, 2008 2:25 am

anochria,
I wrote:But also, Paul neither says that the man of sin, nor those who persecuted the Thessalonian believers would, necessarily, be living when Christ returns.

You replied:
Rick, do you then interpret 2 Thess. 2:8-9 like I suggested earlier in the "alternate reading" or in some other way?

Sounds like our views are pretty similar on this. Just curious why you don't think that passage links the destruction of the lawless one with the second coming.
I just read the Larry Pechawer link you gave for the first time tonite, going over it kind of thoroughly, and will look into it more later. I didn't read it earlier for a couple of reasons.

First, it has taken me a really long time to try to just see what that Bible says---and only says---when it comes to prophetic stuff. Due to my being taught dispensationalism: Well...it's just been really hard to "shake" (for lack of vocabulary)!

In reading Pechawer, I had to do a double-exegesis, so to speak, in that I, (1) had to remember all the erroneous the dispy stuff Larry argues against and, (2) try to decipher just exactly where he was in his doing so. I think I followed his train of thought overall but this kind of approach is hard for me. What do I mean?

What happens is, I keep getting reminded of false interpretations and am constantly "comparing" them with what the Bible says. In doing so I can wind up "stuck" with a million ideas that the Bible writer(s) knew absolutely nothing about! (if you see what I'm saying)....

So, what I attempt to do {and must do!} is something like "get rid of all these current theology debates and doctrines" (aka, drop presuppositions one brings to the text) and just see what's there. How would the original readers have understood this? and so on.

The "alternate reading" you asked about.
Larry's article (link) is good; very informative of the first century context. I'm not sure about his translation yet, if it is the correct one. I'm having a hard time sifting-thru his anti-dispensationalism and getting to what the texts says---or rather, said. What it said first, then what it means now also, imo. For some reason, I think Larry might be reading more there than is there. This is the problem when one deals with dispensationalism; I'll go over Larry's article more later....
Above, you wrote:Just curious why you don't think that passage links the destruction of the lawless one with the second coming.
I DO link it with the second coming (and remain a partial-preterist).
I think I'll try a list, :wink:

1. The destruction of all lawless people will happen when Jesus comes back (general resurrection/judgment/eternity).

2. I said the man of lawlessness wouldn't, necessarily, be living (as in still physically alive like we are) because Paul doesn't say he would be. (This can be taken as my presenting an argument against dispensationalism).

3. Yet, all of the dead of all time will "be alive" when they are resurrected and judged (Last Day (of the Lord)/general rez).

4. This will happen when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven in blazing fire with his powerful angels. 8He will punish those who do not know God and do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus. 9They will be punished with everlasting destruction and shut out from the presence of the Lord {2 Thess 1:7b-9a, NIV}. Note: No resurrection mentioned here (but we know Paul believed in it).

5. The man of lawlessness will be destroyed when #4 happens (as far as I know, imo).

6. His earthly career/life came to an end and God undoubtedly "judged him then" in some sense by ending it. But has the man of lawlessness been before the Great White Throne and given a full account of his life? No, none of us have.

I need some coffee, thanks! :)
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Post by _Rick_C » Fri Feb 22, 2008 7:27 am

After a nap, and I'm not trying to hog up the thread.... :wink:

2 Thes 2, Larry Pechawer's translation (in brackets, not in Greek)
8And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord will overthrow with the breath of his mouth and will overpower at [the time of] the appearance of his coming 9--whose coming is according to the working of Satan....

Comments:
1. Larry and the NIV have "overthrow", which makes it sound like he will just be "taken out of office" or that "his time in power will come to an end". But Paul didn't write that the man of lawlessness would be merely overthrown; he'll be utterly destroyed, imo (as in my translation below).
2. The Greek word can mean: kill, execute, slay, destroy, put out of the way (violently, as we would idiomatically say of killing someone, "take him out" ), abolish. I haven't checked, but think there might be another word for "overthrow"...and could be wrong.
3. The "overpower" [at the coming] doesn't seem right to me either. The Greek is more forceful and definitive, i.e., final and complete, indicating destruction. The NRSV has "annihilating him by the manifestation of his coming" which seems to reflect the full Greek meaning.
4. I'm not sure if Larry was making a 'partial-preterist case' with his translation. But it would "fit" a partial-preterist theology, that is,---if the coming of the Lord in v. 8 were presumed as having happened in 70AD. Though I'm a partial-preterist, I'm not convinced that the coming of the Lord in this verse, chapter, and even book, references the Lord's "coming in judgment" of 70AD. Again, I don't know if this is what Larry was trying to get at (and I need to read him again)....
********************

Mine, a pretty literal translation (but I'm not a Greek expert!)
8And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the *Lord will consume by the breath of his mouth, and will destroy at the bright manifestation of his coming 9---whose is the coming according to the working of Satan....
(or it could possibly be):
8And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the *Lord will consume by the breath of his mouth, and will destroy at the bright manifestation of his coming; 9whose is the coming according to the working of Satan....

*Lord "[Jesus]" omitted, not in all mss

Key phrases
And then the lawless one will be revealed---whose is the coming according to the working of Satan....

The dash {at the beginning of verse 9} or semi-colon {at the end of 8} could be, and quite possibly are, grammatically correct, afaik. The reason being is: the two clauses are related. Translations that start a new sentence miss this important connection, imo.

'Experimental' rendering (in brackets, doesn't necessarily have to be in the English)
8And then the lawless one will be revealed---whom the Lord will consume by the breath of his mouth and [will] destroy at the bright manifestation of his coming 9---the one whose is the coming according to the working of Satan....(italics added for clarification).
********************

A 'thought-for-thought/paraphrase' attempt just for fun, mine
8And then the lawless man will be revealed, out in the open for all to see. His fate is to be utterly done away with by a breath of fire coming out of the Lord's mouth when the Lord comes back again. And when the Lord Jesus appears, he will be very bright, radiant, and glorious!
9But first, the lawless man must come into power. Everything evil thing he will do will be because he is totally inspired and guided by Satan....

NIVR (Reader's Edition)...I just thought to look it up.
Dr. Benny Aker, one of the translators, was my Romans & Hermeneutics Prof. (but not for Greek, I took it with someone else but had to drop it because I didn't have the time to study it).

8 Then the man of sin will appear. The Lord Jesus will overthrow him with the breath of his mouth. The glorious brightness of Jesus' coming will destroy the man of sin.
9 The coming of the man of sin will be Satan's work. His work will be seen in all kinds of fake miracles, signs and wonders.
Okay enuf, Peace in Christ, :)
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Post by _psychohmike » Sat Feb 23, 2008 4:04 am

Rick_C wrote:Pmike,
I wrote:Paul neither says that the man of sin, nor those who persecuted the Thessalonian believers would, necessarily, be living when Christ returns.

You replied with:
2 Thess. 1:3-10 (with highlights in bold) and:
So Rick...70AD or still future?
Future.
Maybe I am just too simplistic and or possibly naive...But these people that Paul was writing to were suffering very real persecution from the Jews. That is those who rejected Jesus and the gospel message.

Now...Considering that Paul wrote to them personally, encouraging them with the fact that God would repay those...that is the Jews that rejected Christ..."since it is a righteous thing with God to repay with tribulation those who trouble you, and to give you who are troubled rest," would it be too much to conclude that the systematic slaughter of upwards of 1.1 million of their persecutors at the hands of the Romans wouldn't be in some sense retribution and relief from the persecution that they were under???

Your thoughts!!!

Pmike
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Post by _Rick_C » Sat Feb 23, 2008 5:34 am

Pmike,

My answer according to 2 Thess 1:5-10: Too much to conclude.
(This post is only about chapter one and what you asked about it).
Consider the following....

I don't know if, or to what extent, the Jews who persecuted the Thessalonian believers were affected by the Roman War. As far as I know, the War didn't spread outside of Jerusalem/Judea. I don't have any information on this: Do you?

If the War and/or its effects did extend beyond Judean borders and into Thessalonika, and it could be verified that every Jew who had persecuted the believers there was *killed; then an argument could possibly be made for a 70AD fulfillment. Full-preterists, and partial-preterists, who argue 2 Thess 1:5-10 was fulfilled in 70AD, have a HUGE exegetical problem here. All of the Thessalonian Jews (who Paul wrote about who persecuted Christians there) have to be accounted for and proven as having been destroyed by someone, leave alone as having been judged and eternally destroyed by Christ. And I've never seen anyone from this camp address them or this issue according to what the text literally says. Yet they argue for a 70AD fulfillment...but on what basis?
(THINK about it) = :idea:

If a case for a "70AD fulfillment of judgment" has been made from 2 Thess 1:5-10 -- keeping in mind who Paul was writing about -- I've not seen it. Paul wrote about final judgment on the Day of the Lord in 2 Thess 1:5-10 (as I've imo'd on the thread already). Otherwise, I think people tend to read more into Thessalonians than is actually there.

*(Jews have traditionally seen their being persecuted as God's judgment and/or a test of their faithfulness, if I'm not mistaken. I just felt I should mention this...I don't enjoy talking about anyone being killed)....

Thank you for the question, Pmike.
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Post by _Christopher » Sat Feb 23, 2008 12:06 pm

Hey Rick,

Here's something you might be interested in since you're a NT Wright fan.

He wrote:
This understanding of Jesus’ message is confirmed as we turn to St. Paul and note his clear awareness that the days of Jerusalem, as he knew it, were strictly numbered. This is how his conviction must be interpreted that the ‘day of the Lord’ was imminent. Contrary to the thinking of both scholars and pietists of many backgrounds, Paul was not envisaging the ‘Parousia’ as an event which had to take place in his lifetime, and which would result in the ending of the space-time order. If that were so, how could he possibly write in 2 Thessalonians 2:1-2 that the church should not be alarmed if they received a letter saying that the ‘day of the Lord had come’? If Paul meant by ‘the day of the Lord’ the end of the space-time universe, the Thessalonians would presumably not need to be informed of the fact via the Roman postal service! Instead, Paul here reflects the early Christian tradition, going back to Jesus himself, according to which Jerusalem was to be destroyed, and according to which that destruction was to be interpreted as the wrath of God against his sinful people. In the same Thessalonian correspondence, Paul asserted that the wrath of God had indeed come upon them ‘to the uttermost’ (1 Thess. 2:16.)
http://www.ntwrightpage.com/Wright_Jeru ... tament.pdf

I wonder what he does with verse 1.

2 Thess 2:1
1 Now, brethren, concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him,
NKJV
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Post by _psychohmike » Sat Feb 23, 2008 6:13 pm

Rick_C wrote:Pmike,

My answer according to 2 Thess 1:5-10: Too much to conclude.
(This post is only about chapter one and what you asked about it).
Consider the following....

I don't know if, or to what extent, the Jews who persecuted the Thessalonian believers were affected by the Roman War. As far as I know, the War didn't spread outside of Jerusalem/Judea. I don't have any information on this: Do you?
Flavius Josephus: War of The Jews.

If you haven't read this I don't expect you to understand how extensive the decimation of the Jews was at the hands of the Romans. It's a heavy read, but if you decide to embark you might change your mind about what happened in AD70. It has been my observation that only preterists are willing to read such a dry and extensive work. Heck...Most people don't even know who Josephus is.
Rick_C wrote:If the War and/or its effects did extend beyond Judean borders and into Thessalonika, and it could be verified that every Jew who had persecuted the believers there was *killed; then an argument could possibly be made for a 70AD fulfillment. Full-preterists, and partial-preterists, who argue 2 Thess 1:5-10 was fulfilled in 70AD, have a HUGE exegetical problem here. All of the Thessalonian Jews (who Paul wrote about who persecuted Christians there) have to be accounted for and proven as having been destroyed by someone, leave alone as having been judged and eternally destroyed by Christ. And I've never seen anyone from this camp address them or this issue according to what the text literally says. Yet they argue for a 70AD fulfillment...but on what basis?
(THINK about it) = :idea:
Again...War of The Jews by Josephus. It records the Roman armies began their march down to Jerusalem that they systematically wiped out everyone and everything within their path that looked Jewish. Josephus recorded that the reasoning for this is that they didn't want to be flanked once they moved through. They very literally cleansed the land by fire, leaving everything in ashes as they moved forward.

1 Thess. 2:14-16 For you, brethren, became imitators of the churches of God which are in Judea in Christ Jesus. For you also suffered the same things from your own countrymen, just as they did from the Judeans, who killed both the Lord Jesus and their own prophets, and have persecuted us; and they do not please God and are contrary to all men, forbidding us to speak to the Gentiles that they may be saved, so as always to fill up the measure of their sins; but wrath has come upon them to the uttermost.

At the time the letters to the Thessalonians were written the ONLY persecution that the followers of Christ were under was Jewish persecution. Heck...As far as I can glean from history the rest of the Roman empire didn't care who you worshiped...hence no religious persecution.

So Paul said it, I believe it and have no reason to doubt that the believers were being persecuted by those that crucified Jesus and rejected the gospel.
Rick_C wrote:If a case for a "70AD fulfillment of judgment" has been made from 2 Thess 1:5-10 -- keeping in mind who Paul was writing about -- I've not seen it.
Well there you have it...Although the only thing you have proven here is that YOU haven't seen it. If you would look however maybe you would change your mind...I would suggest "Josephus: War of The Jews."
Rick_C wrote:Paul wrote about final judgment on the Day of the Lord in 2 Thess 1:5-10 (as I've imo'd on the thread already). Otherwise, I think people tend to read more into Thessalonians than is actually there.
I and many others would call what happened in that generation was the end of something very significant. That is the end of the old covenant economy as to how God had dealt with Israel. Jesus and the gospel message was their last and final hope. He said it Himself, "Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill."


There you go Rick
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Post by _Rick_C » Sun Feb 24, 2008 6:24 am

Christopher,

Thanks for that link. I did some googling to try to see what I else could find about 2 Thess 2:1 and/or the rapture. Here's what I came up with (with no comments on what's in them for now, other than generally speaking):
TIME magazine, 07 Feb. 2008
Christians Wrong About Heaven, Says Bishop


Very interesting reading.
However, NTW, with his anti-dispensational and 'traditional views of heaven' polemics, makes it sort of hard to understand what he really believes. I find this problem a lot actually. E.g., Steve Gregg's eschatology lectures are really good! But how much time does he spend in refutation of wrong-views? A lot. This is a great thing that Steve and N.T. have done. No doubt about that! But the focus can be so much about the wrong views that, well, what do you believe? "It doesn't mean this or that" is one thing. "It means this" another.

I've tried to find Bible teachings on 2 Thess 2 since coming to this thread, and listened to Steve on it again. Most of what I've found is of the "It doesn't mean this or that" variety. Dispensationalism is probably waning in the numbers of adherents these days, I can't say for sure. It sure seems to be on the internet anyway. And men like Steve and N.T. are to be highly commended for their efforts in this (which was, has been, and still is, needed).

But I'd really like to find one good lecture {or lectures} on 2 Thess that just goes into how it would have been understood when it was written (and nothing more nor less) rather than, "Dispensationalists say this", etc. Steve does a good job in his lectures, don't get me wrong. The thing is, I already know the dispensationalists are wrong and have known it for about 28 years! (had a birthday yesterday, 52, gettin old(er), :wink:

At any rate, this Time interview is interesting and makes you really think. NTW seems to believe in some kind of "soul-sleep" though he acknowledges {believes in} an intermediate state where people are worshiping God right now! {as in Rev.}.

He does believe in the rapture and/or actual physical return of Jesus to earth. It's just that you seldom hear him say a thing about it...other than anti-LaHaye, etc., stuff. In this interview he finally said he believes in a real rapture. (I didn't doubt he did but the title of this next link explains what I'm saying further):
Farewell to the Rapture, by N.T. Wright :?:

N.T. believes in it. It's just that he speaks out so much against popular views of it...it could make one wonder (look at the title, above).

One more link, which I haven't read yet:
Jesus Creed:
Scot McKnight Blog discussion of NTW's book "Surprised by Hope"


I bet Scot & Co. have already covered much of this stuff (and a good feed is the Jesus Creed)! Peace in Jesus, :)
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Post by _Rick_C » Sun Feb 24, 2008 6:52 am

Pmike,

I did some research and found that the Jews living in Thessalonica did not participate in the Great War of 70AD. You advised me to read Josephus, which I have, though not every single word, I don't think (?).

Do you have book, chapter, and section references from Josephus to show that the Thessalonian Jews were, indeed, affected by the Great War in any way? My resources say they were uninvolved and, therefore, were essentially unaffected by it. You mentioned the Jews in Jerusalem coming under God's judgment in 70AD: I know about them (Josephus).

(Jerusalem and Thessalonica are not the same city).

Paul expressly wrote that the Thessalonican Jews would come under Christ's (God's) judgment and be eternally destroyed for persecuting the believers there. You haven't provided evidence that this happened to them nor that they were even affected by the Great War in any way. As far as I know, and have no reason to think otherwise, the Thessalonian Jews who persecuted Christians in that city died natural deaths and will be judged on the Last Day.

But if you have documentation that the Jews in Thessalonica were annihilated in 70AD, and my resources say they were not; please post it (I want to know). If you can present this, you would then have a basis to make case for a "70AD fulfillment in Thessalonica" regarding precisely what and who Paul wrote about.
I'd be glad to hear it (and will respond), :wink:
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Post by _rvornberg » Sun Feb 24, 2008 3:08 pm

Rick_C wrote:However, NTW, with his anti-dispensational and 'traditional views of heaven' polemics, makes it sort of hard to understand what he really believes. I find this problem a lot actually. E.g., Steve Gregg's eschatology lectures are really good! But how much time does he spend in refutation of wrong-views? A lot. This is a great thing that Steve and N.T. have done. No doubt about that! But the focus can be so much about the wrong views that, well, what do you believe? "It doesn't mean this or that" is one thing. "It means this" another.
And Rick... honestly, it was much easier taking the dispensational view. Of course the problem I have now is, recognizing it's flaws. So... basically no turning back. Problem: where do I go?

I find, if we're honest (PLEASE SOMEONE CORRECT ME IF I'M WRONG!), the very thing we accuse dispensationalist of (pure speculation), we've ended up, somehow in that same camp.

When I say: "someone correct me if I'm wrong", I mean that with the uttermost sincerity.

I admitt, I'm not sophisticate enough to figure all this out on my own, and just a quick read and some common sense will tell any sensible person, I'm not alone.
Christopher wrote:I wonder what he does with verse 1.

2 Thess 2:1
1 Now, brethren, concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him,
Me too Chris, me too... thus my origination of this thread.
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