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"...and never shall be."

Posted: Wed Apr 27, 2016 7:18 am
by TK
What is the partial preterist interpretation of Jesus' statement in the OD that there will be the greatest tribulation the world has seen or ever shall be seen?

Matthew 24:21 For then there will be great tribulation, such as has not been since the beginning of the world until this time, no, nor ever shall be.


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Re:

Posted: Wed Apr 27, 2016 7:43 am
by mattrose
I would say it is hyperbolic language as is common in Scripture

And I will do among you what I have never done, and the like of which I will never do again, because of all your abominations. ~Ezekiel 5:9

Exodus 11:6, 2 Kings 18:5, 2 Kings 23:25, Daniel 9:12, Joel 2:2

And was used freely by contemporaries of the events of AD70

"The war which the Jews made with the Romans hath been the greatest of all those, not only that have been in our times, but, in a manner, of those that ever were heard of." and "the multitude of those that perished exceeded all of the destructions which either man or God ever bought upon the world... No other city ever suffered such things, no other generation was ever more fruitful in wickedness." (Josephus)

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Posted: Wed Apr 27, 2016 1:44 pm
by Singalphile
1 Kings 3:12, too.

Re:

Posted: Wed Apr 27, 2016 2:29 pm
by Paidion
Of course many or most of us historic pre-millenialists (as well as dispensationalists) understand Jesus' words to be literally true, believing it to refer to the future tribulation period that is predicted to come just prior to the second coming of Christ, and the establishment of his millenial reign.

Re:

Posted: Thu Apr 28, 2016 9:47 am
by steve7150
Of course many or most of us historic pre-millenialists (as well as dispensationalists) understand Jesus' words to be literally true, believing it to refer to the future tribulation period that is predicted to come just prior to the second coming of Christ, and the establishment of his millenial reign.






I see no problem with multiple fulfillments in God's statements so Jerusalem 70AD may have been the greatest tribulation up to that time but certainly since then WW1 & WW2 have been greater. But also now we have Islamic countries having nuclear capabilities like Pakistan or on their way to getting it like Iran and almost inevitably they will use it. Certainly Jerusalem will be one target among others and Iran may even attack Mecca to usher in the appearance of their perceived Mahdi and get rid of the corrupt betrayers of Islam, that being the house of Saud.

Re: Re:

Posted: Thu Apr 28, 2016 10:50 am
by dwilkins
Paidion wrote:Of course many or most of us historic pre-millenialists (as well as dispensationalists) understand Jesus' words to be literally true, believing it to refer to the future tribulation period that is predicted to come just prior to the second coming of Christ, and the establishment of his millenial reign.
If the original authors meant it to be understood as hyperbole then to take it literally would be a mistake. On what grounds do you say that taking this passage literally is the correct approach?

Doug

Re:

Posted: Thu Apr 28, 2016 11:52 am
by Paidion
As one old Mennonite man declared, "If the literal sense makes sense, then it makes no sense to take it in any other sense."

Re:

Posted: Thu Apr 28, 2016 11:54 am
by steve7150
Matthew 24:21 For then there will be great tribulation, such as has not been since the beginning of the world until this time, no, nor ever shall be.










But on the other hand Jesus did say in 34 that "this generation shall not pass away until all these things have happened" which suggests he meant 70AD since "this generation" was used by him several times earlier literally as the generation living with him.

Re:

Posted: Thu Apr 28, 2016 12:33 pm
by Paidion
Hi Steve7150,

Currently, we think of a "generation" as being either all people living at the same time, or the time ordinarily occupied by each successive group of offspring of all people living at the same time—a period of about 30-33 years.

However, in Greek the word "generation" (γενεα) has other meanings as well. Consider #2 below:

1) fathered, birth, nativity
2) that which has been begotten, men of the same stock, a family
2a) the several ranks of natural descent, the successive members of a genealogy
2b) metaph. a group of men very like each other in endowments, pursuits, character
2b1) esp. in a bad sense, a perverse nation
3) the whole multitude of men living at the same time
4) an age (i.e. the time ordinarily occupied by each successive generation), a space of 30-33 years

Jesus may have meant the people of Jewish stock would not pass away until all those things had been fulfilled.

Indeed, since Jesus ADDRESSED the generation of his day, this seems more likely:
"O faithless generation, how long shall I be with you? How long shall I bear with you? Bring him to Me." (Mark 9:19)

Jesus was addressing Jewish people with these words. He was not addressing all people who were alive at that time.

Also consider the words of Jesus to the scribes and Pharisees and lawyers of the Jews in Luke 11:43-51. After pronouncing woes to them all, He said:

Therefore the wisdom of God also said, ‘I will send them prophets and apostles, and some of them they will kill and persecute,’that the blood of all the prophets which was shed from the foundation of the world may be required of this generation, from the blood of Abel to the blood of Zechariah who perished between the altar and the temple. Yes, I say to you, it shall be required of this generation.

Why would the blood of those prophets who were killed throughout the ages be required of the people who happened to be living at that time? Was Jesus not saying that the blood of those prophets would be required of the people group to whom He was speaking?

Also notice that Peter also used "generation" in the sense of a particular people, and not in the sense of all people who were living at the time:
But you are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, His own special people, that you may proclaim the praises of Him who called you out of darkness into His marvelous light (1 Peter 2:9)

Re: Re:

Posted: Fri Apr 29, 2016 8:24 am
by dwilkins
Paidion wrote:As one old Mennonite man declared, "If the literal sense makes sense, then it makes no sense to take it in any other sense."
That approach seems like circular reasoning to me. You are assuming that something makes sense as a literal statement and then using this fact to take it literally. Don't you have some other way to decide which passages should be taken literally and which ones shouldn't?

Doug