Gospel Preached to all Nations
Posted: Thu Jun 06, 2024 9:06 am
And the gospel must first be preached to all the nations. - Mark 13:10 NASB
I'm a pastor, and many years ago now, I preached Mark 13, kind of ironing out my eschatological interpretations of the passage while I went through it. I will say I knew beforehand I wasn't dispensationalist, and leaned partial preterist. What surprised me, is by the end of studying and preaching Mark 13, I felt nothing necessitated any end of the world interpretations about it. (I find information and Scripture about the end of the world in 1 Cor 15; 2 Peter 3 etc).
In my reading plan today I was brought to Mark 13, and verse 10 jumped out at me. The Gospel must be preached before what Jesus is describing can be fulfilled. If I take - as I do - He to be describing the fall of Jerusalem primarily, WHY must the Gospel be preached to all nations (as it seemingly was by the time of the war, Acts 2:5; Colossians 1:6 etc)?
Was there a significant hindrance to preach the Gospel after the war? While a command to preach the Gospel to all the nations leading up to 70AD is in place, it seems like also Jesus informed His Disciples even all Israel wouldn't be ministered to before the Judgment of 70AD happened (see Matt. 10:23).
So is Mark 13:10 simply a command to not be distracted by the coming Judgement, but to keep pushing the Gospel outward? Was that the only point of that?
Does my subtle confusion or question make any sense?
I'm a pastor, and many years ago now, I preached Mark 13, kind of ironing out my eschatological interpretations of the passage while I went through it. I will say I knew beforehand I wasn't dispensationalist, and leaned partial preterist. What surprised me, is by the end of studying and preaching Mark 13, I felt nothing necessitated any end of the world interpretations about it. (I find information and Scripture about the end of the world in 1 Cor 15; 2 Peter 3 etc).
In my reading plan today I was brought to Mark 13, and verse 10 jumped out at me. The Gospel must be preached before what Jesus is describing can be fulfilled. If I take - as I do - He to be describing the fall of Jerusalem primarily, WHY must the Gospel be preached to all nations (as it seemingly was by the time of the war, Acts 2:5; Colossians 1:6 etc)?
Was there a significant hindrance to preach the Gospel after the war? While a command to preach the Gospel to all the nations leading up to 70AD is in place, it seems like also Jesus informed His Disciples even all Israel wouldn't be ministered to before the Judgment of 70AD happened (see Matt. 10:23).
So is Mark 13:10 simply a command to not be distracted by the coming Judgement, but to keep pushing the Gospel outward? Was that the only point of that?
Does my subtle confusion or question make any sense?