Re: Isaiah 40:3
Posted: Mon Mar 15, 2021 9:14 pm
I think that's right and it's sort of the point -- many if not most of these disputed texts (that aren't rife with translation or manuscript problems) depend greatly on the color of glasses you are wearing and some are frankly a challenge for either position. It's not at all different from many of the calvinist prooftext situations. When that happens, it usually suggests (to me anyway) that a doctrine shouldn't be built on them - no matter how many there are (and especially when the doctrine is an attempt not to understand them necessarily but to reconcile them).Darrell wrote: ↑Mon Mar 15, 2021 4:54 pmRegarding "fulfillment fallacy" and Isaiah 40:3
A Trinitarian or Modalist might proclaim "see this is proof!" while an Arian or Unitarian would of necessity declare "exegetical/ fulfillment fallacy".
It just depends on how it fits one's theological grid.
There is no doubt the prophecy was fulfilled but in what way? Is the focus / emphasis of the prophecy on the "voice crying" or "the One" coming?
John the Apostle has John the Baptist quoting Isaiah which begs the question did he quote the passage in Hebrew or in Greek/LXX.. personally I lean toward John quoting Isaiah in Hebrew which means he would have used YHWH (I doubt he used ădônây or hashêm because Isaiah didn't). On the other hand if he spoke in Greek he more than likely used κύριος.
Either way someone claiming to be "the voice crying" prophesied by Isaiah would definitely draw a crowd and get the attention of the religious leaders..because that would mean…. what?