Begotten before all ages

[Paidion]

No no no, Paidion!

Not through but "because of" or "on account of" The Greek... DIA

G1223
διά
dia; a prim. prep.; through, on account of, because of: - account (4), after (2), afterward (1), always *(2), because (111), between *(1), briefly *(1), charge *(1), constantly (1), continually *(6), during (1), forever *(1), gives (1), means (3), over (1), presence (1), reason (40), sake (41), sakes (5), since (1), so then *(1), so *(1), therefore *(16), this reason *(1), this *(1), though (1), through (225), through the agency (1), through *(1), view (2), way (3), what (1), why (3), why *(27).

Pierac, you cannot determine the meaning of a Greek preposition merely by looking at a Greek lexicon. If you study Greek, you will know that some prepositions have several meanings, and the meaning can be determined by the case of the noun which is the object of that prepostion.

When the object of ""δια" is in the genitive case, the meaning is "through".
When the object of ""δια" is in the accusative case, the meaning is "because of " or "on account of".

In John 1:3, the object of "δια" is "αὐτου" (him), and "αὐτου" is in the genitive case. Thus it's meaning is "through".

I don't understand why you have a problem with that. You, yourself, quoted a lexicon above which gave "through" as one of the meanings, and you emphasized "through the agency of" by bluing it. So what gives you a problem with "through"?

The last sentence in your post reads:

Paul explained that after the first came into being, then the Father created everything else in Him, through Him, and for Him.

I agree completely. I am puzzled. I fail to see where you think we disagree.

[selah]

When the object of ""δια" is in the genitive case, the meaning is "through".
When the object of ""δια" is in the accusative case, the meaning is "because of " or "on account of".

In John 1:3, the object of "δια" is "αὐτου" (him), and "αὐτου" is in the genitive case. Thus it's meaning is "through".

Paidion,

May I jump in here? I looked up the words "genitive" and "accusative" in the dictionary and the first word to describe both of them is the word "of." However, as the dictionary states, "genitive" relates to possession and "accusative" relates to an object.

Yet in your example above, John 1:3, you state that the object of those three Greek words is the genitive case (which relates to possession, not object.) I'm confused. Would you explain?

Does the word "against" ever translate differently, due to the genitive case verses accusative case?

Thank you,
Selah*

[Paidion]

You are right that normally, the genitive case indicates possession. For example, in Greek "ο λογος του θεου" means "the word of God" or "God's word" where "του θεου" (of the God) is in the genitive case.

However, prepositions have objects. In Greek, objects of prepositions can be in the genitive case, the accusative case or the dative case. When the object of a preposition is in the genitive case, it is not a possessive.

It is true that the object of a verb is always in the accusative case and never in the genitive.