Shema Yisrael

[Pierac]

Nope. Nope. Nope. Nope. Please tell me- What sentence am I not being very clear on?

k#1. Jesus was born of Mary. (Comment).

You are correct!

k#2. Mary was found with child of the Holy Ghost. (Comment).

Again correct, but you left out this is the very reason He (Jesus) is called the Son of God! Read Gabriel...

Luk 1:26 Now in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God to a city in Galilee called Nazareth, 27 to a virgin engaged to a man whose name was Joseph, of the descendants of David; and the virgin's name was Mary...
Luk 1:32 "He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High; and the Lord God will give Him the throne of His father David; ... 35 The angel answered and said to her, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; and for that reason the holy Child shall be called the Son of God.

And for what reason? That God has come in the flesh or that the Holy Spirit has come upon Mary? Yes, Karen read it again. I know it teaches against the tradition of men. Yea, it sucks to believe a lie, just ask me how I know!!!

k#3. Jesus was JHVH prior to coming into this life born as the man-child Jesus. (Comment).

Not according to scripture...
Heb 1:1 God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, 2 in these last days has spoken to us in His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, (on account of) whom also He made the (ages).

k#4. The LDS do not believe that Jehovah is God the Father however, but that Jehovah was with God the Father from the beginning. That Jehovah is the Son of The One True Living God, and that One True Living God is God the Father. The God of Jehovah who became Jesus Christ through Mary. Thus the One God of Jesus Christ.(Comment). (Thus Monotheism)

Karen beginning of what? God has no beginning! This is your missing link... Eternally begotton is an oxymorion, as begotten has a beginning...God does not!

k#5. JHVH is God of the Jew in that the Jew was given to the Son JHVH by God the Father as an inheritance. Thus, for the Jew, Jehovah God, is Jewish understanding. Not ours. That Jehovah became the man-child Jesus born of Mary, who then told us all that we are to worship His (and our) Father in Heaven, is clear. The Jew merely do not aknowledge that JHVH is their own Messiah come in the Flesh. (Comment).

The Jews rejected Jesus as the Messiah, the Christ, that's the whole point. It had nothing to do with Jesus being God himself.

k#6. That there are not TWO Gods here but ONE. And that One is God the Father. (Comment).

Agreed, so why do you feel the need to make Jesus JHVH, as he claims both before and after the resurrection to have both a God and Father?

k#7. The LDS does not read that Jesus is God the Father come in the Flesh, but the Son who is Jehovah that has now become flesh and has been among us in the Flesh, though now raised unto God the Father, by God the Father. Jesus Christ is not God. Jesus Christ HAS A God. And that One God is God The Father. (Comment).

You discribe a oxymoron, much like the trinity. In fact I'm confused by K#7 all together? I don't understand what your trying to communicate?

k#8. Jesus Christ, the Son of Our Father in Heaven, is our living Head. He is our Lord, our Governer. Our King. Lord of Lord's. Lord of all. (Comment).

Yes, I agree Jesus is Lord of all that is given to him by God His Father!

K#9. I thought I had gone over this so many times that it had become clear. What is not clear here?

k#10. I am not that smart nor am I angry, but this is rediculous. (Comment).

Welcome to the world of forum communication!

Peace sister,
Paul

[Jill]

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[Pierac]

Hey- thank you so much. Really. This will help me understand the confusion within others even more than within myself! Thank you.

This is still rediculous however. The vasilations in these reasonings reveal so much inconsistency on your part, that I think your "in depth study", as well as having come out from the confusion of Roman Catholicism is not quite yet finished. But I'll take another look at it. Thank you so much for your comments .

No problem Karen,

I'm a work in progress too. So please point out any errors, that you may see. My we grow together...

Paul

[Jill]

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[Paidion]

So what does this all mean? Evidently when the young man addressed Jesus as "Good Teacher" Jesus took offense. His response indicates a rebuke in fact: "Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone." (bold]This crucial phrase ei me heis ho theos may also be translated "but the one God,"[/bold] which is a strong unitary monotheistic affirmation from Jesus’ lips: "no one is good but the one God.")

[Bolding mine]

Pierac, by all the rules of Greek grammar of which I am aware, "εἰ μη εἱς ὁ θεος" could not be translated as "but the one God". For the adjective "εἱς" is in the predicate position. In order to render the phrase as "but the one God", it would have to be in the attributive positon, that is, "εἰ μη ὁ εἱς θεος".

[Pierac]

So what does this all mean? Evidently when the young man addressed Jesus as "Good Teacher" Jesus took offense. His response indicates a rebuke in fact: "Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone." This crucial phrase ei me heis ho theos may also be translated "but the one God," which is a strong unitary monotheistic affirmation from Jesus’ lips: "no one is good but the one God.")

[Bolding mine]

Pierac, by all the rules of Greek grammar of which I am aware, "εἰ μη εἱς ὁ θεος" could not be translated as "but the one God". For the adjective "εἱς" is in the predicate position. In order to render the phrase as "but the one God", it would have to be in the attributive positon, that is, "εἰ μη ὁ εἱς θεος".

(Analytical Literal version e-sword) But Jesus said to him, "Why do you call Me good? No one [is] good except One-God.

(CLV e-sword) Now Jesus said to him, "Why are you terming Me good? No one is good except One, God."

(English Codex Sinaiticus e-sword) And Jesus said to him: Why callest thou me good? None is good but one, God.

(Darby) But Jesus said to him, Why callest thou me good? There is none good but one, God.

(Geneva 1587) And Iesus said vnto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, saue one, euen God.

(GDBY_NT) And Jesus said to him, Why do you call me good? No one is good, except One, God.

(Literal Translation of the Holy Bible e-sword) But Jesus said to him, Why do you say Me to be good? No one is good, except One: God.

(RNKJV) And Yeshua said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, YHVH.

(Worrell New Testament e-sword) And Jesus said to him, "Why do you call Me good? No one is good, but One—God.

Paidion, Jesus teaches us he is a man, and has a God…

John 8:40 "But as it is, you are seeking to kill Me, a man who has told you the truth, which I heard from God; this Abraham did not do.

Rev 3:12 'He who overcomes, I will make him a pillar in the temple of My God, and he will not go out from it anymore; and I will write on him the name of My God, and the name of the city of My God, the new Jerusalem, which comes down out of heaven from My God, and My new name.


Joh 20:17 Jesus *said to her, "Stop clinging to Me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, 'I ascend to My Father and your Father, and My God and your God.'"

Do you really think Jesus was speaking of himself when He said… "Why are you terming Me good? No one is good except One, God." ? So was Jesus speaking of himself or speaking of what He Himself terms..."My God" ?

Indeed Jesus knows about His God... "For You alone are Holy" ... (i.e. Good)
Paul

[Jill]

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[Pierac]

Jesus was speaking of His Father in Heaven, who is God.

Indeed! His (Jesus') God and Father.


Paul

[Jill]

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[Paidion]

Pierac quoted several translations which read similarly to the following:

CLV e-sword) Now Jesus said to him, "Why are you terming Me good? No one is good except One, God."

I am not sure why you quoted these translations, Pierac. They do not contradict anything I said in my post.

There is considerable difference in saying, "No one is good except One, God" and "No one is good except the one God." However, I was not making any theological argument. I was simply pointing out why the Greek construction does not admit the latter translation. You stated that it did.