Isaiah 40:3

Darrell
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Isaiah 40:3

Post by Darrell » Sun Mar 14, 2021 6:13 pm

Greetings All,

When referencing Isaiah 40:3; The writers of the NT apply it specifically to the coming of the Messiah, Jesus The Son of God; (Mat 3:1-3, Mar 1:3, Luk 3:4, Joh:1:23) John the Baptist being the forerunner preparing the way for the coming of the Lord, the Christ.

(Isa 40:3) The voice of him that crieth in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the LORD, make straight in the desert a highway for our God. KJV

Notice that “LORD” is in all caps, as you may know, this signifies that it is not a translation but a substitution of God’s name YHWH. According to Isaiah the One who’s way was to be prepared was YHWH our God.

All 4 Gospel writers take a verse from the OT that applies exclusively to YHWH our God and apply it to the One we know as Jesus. I think this would have been especially significant to a devout Jew at that time.

Thoughts?

Live Blest - d

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darinhouston
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Re: Isaiah 40:3

Post by darinhouston » Sun Mar 14, 2021 10:18 pm

This is an example of what Dale Tuggy refers to as a "fulfillment fallacy." The main idea is just because the Isaiah passage refers to Yahweh, it doesn't mean that the quotation or later fulfillment matches exactly.
Dale Tuggy wrote: darin: deleted quoted sarcastic example that was unhelpful and inappropriately mocking

Darrell
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Re: Isaiah 40:3

Post by Darrell » Sun Mar 14, 2021 10:39 pm

Psalm 110 was penned by David, not about David.
Psa 110:1 KJV A Psalm of David. YHWH said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.


Mat 22:41-45 KJV
41 While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them,
42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David. 43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,
44 The LORD (YHWH) said unto my Lord (The Son of David), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?
45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?

Live Blest - d

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darinhouston
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Re: Isaiah 40:3

Post by darinhouston » Sun Mar 14, 2021 11:19 pm

No, you're quite right - I think he was just stringing together a nonsensical argument to prove a point. Probably bad humor. He wasn't trying to prove a real syllogism. It's just that this is how bad some of the thinking can be.

Darrell
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Re: Isaiah 40:3

Post by Darrell » Sun Mar 14, 2021 11:59 pm

Darin,
Thank you for the clarification.

I think you would agree that just because someone recognized as an authority / scholar labels something a certain way doesn't make it true : example, your thread on MacArthur and his view of those who aren't trinitarian.

Blessings - d

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darinhouston
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Re: Isaiah 40:3

Post by darinhouston » Mon Mar 15, 2021 8:06 am

Well, certainly.

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Homer
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Re: Isaiah 40:3

Post by Homer » Mon Mar 15, 2021 11:18 am

Darin,

I am surprised you would find it worthwhile to post Tuggy's mocking, asinine illustration. This impugns the intelligence/motivations of those who disagree.

Step 2: prove that Jesus is David
1. When the Psalmist says “The Lord (Hebrew YHWH) says to my lord (Hebrew adon), ‘Sit at my right hand
until I make your enemies your footstool'” the words “my lord” refer to David. (Psalm 110:1)

Tuggy was not only deceitful, but insulting as well.

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darinhouston
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Re: Isaiah 40:3

Post by darinhouston » Mon Mar 15, 2021 12:28 pm

Homer wrote:
Mon Mar 15, 2021 11:18 am
Darin,

I am surprised you would find it worthwhile to post Tuggy's mocking, asinine illustration. This impugns the intelligence/motivations of those who disagree.

Step 2: prove that Jesus is David
1. When the Psalmist says “The Lord (Hebrew YHWH) says to my lord (Hebrew adon), ‘Sit at my right hand
until I make your enemies your footstool'” the words “my lord” refer to David. (Psalm 110:1)

Tuggy was not only deceitful, but insulting as well.
I probably have to own that - fair criticism. Thinking of deleting but want my acknowledgment to be seen. Frankly, I didn't pay close enough attention to notice initially. But, it's sort of besides the point, which makes it further irrelevant. The response as to the fallacy is sound - sorry this detracted.

Darrell
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Re: Isaiah 40:3

Post by Darrell » Mon Mar 15, 2021 12:46 pm

Greetings Darin,
If you'd like, I too will delete all my posts except the original and we can start again :)

Blessings - d

Darrell
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Re: Isaiah 40:3

Post by Darrell » Mon Mar 15, 2021 4:54 pm

Regarding "fulfillment fallacy" and Isaiah 40:3

A Trinitarian or Modalist might proclaim "see this is proof!" while an Arian or Unitarian would of necessity declare "exegetical/ fulfillment fallacy".
It just depends on how it fits one's theological grid.

There is no doubt the prophecy was fulfilled but in what way? Is the focus / emphasis of the prophecy on the "voice crying" or "the One" coming?

John the Apostle has John the Baptist quoting Isaiah which begs the question did he quote the passage in Hebrew or in Greek/LXX.. personally I lean toward John quoting Isaiah in Hebrew which means he would have used YHWH (I doubt he used ădônây or hashêm because Isaiah didn't). On the other hand if he spoke in Greek he more than likely used κύριος.

Either way someone claiming to be "the voice crying" prophesied by Isaiah would definitely draw a crowd and get the attention of the religious leaders..because that would mean…. what?

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