I got busy with work, school, and watching the World Series, but this still is very interesting to me since I run into a lot of JW's around my neighborhood (especially on Saturday morning).
I wrote;
The NWT translates John 1:30 as '…Behind me there comes a man…' rather than using a more appropriate word as '…after' me there comes a man…'
'This is the one about whom I said, behind me there comes a man who has advanced in front of me because he existed before me' (John 1:30 NWT)
The NASB translates this as follows;
'This is He on behalf of whom I said,
'After me comes a Man who has a higher rank than I, for He existed before me.' (John 1:30 NASB)
Paidion wrote;
I really see no problem here. During a race, the one who came in second place may be said to have arrived at the goal AFTER the winner, or to have arrived there BEHIND the winner. There's not much difference. Though it does seem more natural to say that Jesus came proclaiming the Kingdom AFTER John did, rather than coming BEHIND John. But the Greek word definitely means "behind".For example, in Matthew 16:23, Jesus said to Peter, "Get BEHIND me, Adversary" not "Get AFTER me, Adversary". Also in Luke 7:38, Philippians 3:13, and Revelation 1:10, "behind" is the translation. "After" would not make much sense in those verses'
The Greek word definitely means behind
or after.
If a word can be translated as either behind, after or pumpkin pie, and you use the word pumpkin pie when another word might be a better translation of the meaning then you have not done a good job of translating.
And the word opismo (in both 1:15 and 1:30) corresponds to the word proto (or before) at the end of the sentence. It certainly seems like a reference to time or order, since I do not think John is in a foot race with Jesus. (And remember nobody knew who Jesus was up until this time, but John was well known)
The NASB Translates the word (opiso) as follows;
after (18), around (1), back (2), back (3), behind (5), follow (2), follow (2), withdrew (1).
There is a definite difference in identifying this as either after or behind, behind refers (generally) to a 'place' and after generally refers to following, order, or a reference to time.
When referring to time, 'after' is the best choice.
For example; Jesus told the devil to get behind Him, as in place, Jesus was not telling the devil to go back in time.
I also just noticed how bad the 'whole' verse here is translated in the NWT. What is with all the brackets and parentheses? And note the addition of the phrase; 'yes, he actually cried out', and also; 'this was the one who said [it]'. This translation makes it really hard to figure out who said 'it', Jesus or John? And I cannot see how any of this added text has anything to do with the actual Greek, note how closely the ESV, NASB, KJV and all the other translations stick to the Greek and are much 'more' clear than whatever (?) the NWT is trying to do (
http://interlinearbible.org/john/1-15.htm );
'(John bore witness about him, yes, he actually cried out - this was the one who said [it] - saying; 'The one coming behind me has advanced in front of me, because he existed before me') (John 1:15 NWT)
'John bore witness about him, and cried out, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me ranks before me, because he was before me' (John 1:15 ESV)
'John testified about Him and cried out, saying, "This was He of whom I said, 'He who comes after me has a higher rank than I, for He existed before me' (John 1:15 NASB)
'John bare witness of him, and cried, saying, This was he of whom I spake, He that cometh after me is preferred before me: for he was before me' (John 1:15 KJV, Cambridge)