Judas' Death and Burial

Post by **_anothersteve** » Fri Aug 08, 2008 12:33 pm

On Wednesday’s program a question about the varying accounts of Judas’ death was raised. I wanted to throw out my potential explanation. I would like to know if my theory can be easily refuted by any known historical understanding of the time.

Here’s my theory.

First, the account in Acts seems to be stressing the field that Judas purchased and the fact that he was buried there, and possibly not describing the mode of death itself (i.e. hanging or falling).

Secondly, Judas may have been considered cursed because he was hung on a tree and would not be provided a proper funeral.

Given my two assumptions, could Peter have been describing Judas being tossed by individuals into to the field of blood (whether it was a large hole, a cave etc…) after he was taken down from the tree? This would explain him falling and why the field of blood is mentioned directly in the context.

I realize I’m arguing from silence but does anyone know if this theory can be refuted?

Thanks
Steve F

Post by **_TK** » Fri Aug 08, 2008 2:19 pm

this has always been a fun topic to talk about- we have discussed it elsewhere here but I'm too lazy to look for it right now.

falling "headlong" always seemed to be the problem with trying to reconcile the accounts- if the rope broke when he was trying to hang himself (or sometime thereafter) he would have fallen footlong.

i like your explanation- if they removed his rotting body from the tree and did the old heave ho into the field of blood, he might have flew headlong until he hit the ground, thereby causing his guts to gush out.

i always wondered why Luke included that unsavory detail- probably because he was dr.

TK

Post by **_Steve** » Fri Aug 08, 2008 2:51 pm

I don't think many conclusions can be drawn fro the use of the word "headlong." As near as I can tell, it is not the same idea as "head-first" (that is, the head being down). It seems to mean a position with the head forward. A man falling headlong can simply mean with his head forward of his body. A man dropping vertically, with his feet closer to the ground than his head would still be falling "headlong", if his body was positioned diagonally to the plane of his descent, with his head foreward and his stomach facing the ground. This may tell us nothing about the question raised in this thread, but it may prevent us from getting the wrong picture from the use of the word "headlong."

As for the meaning of the word "foot-long"...well, I believe that's a variety of frankfurter.

Post by **_Paidion** » Fri Aug 08, 2008 8:08 pm

We often make inferences from the meaning of English translations --- in this case "cast headlong"

But the Greek word is "katakrāmnizō"

This is a compound word made up of "kata" which means "down" and the second part which is derived from "katakrāmnos" which means "a steep place" or "a precipice".

Thus the word "katakrāmnizō" means "to cast down a steep place" or "to cast down a precipice"

Post by **_Michelle** » Sat Aug 09, 2008 10:41 am

I thought that headlong implied "imprudently" as in: I rushed headlong into this project without stopping to think how much of my time would be taken up.

I looked up the Greek and found that it was a different word in Acts 1:18 than it is in Luke 4:29. In Acts it's the word prenes and in Luke it's the word katakramnizo (sorry, I can't do Greek letters.)

The word prenes was just translated as "headlong," nothing else about direction or geography.

Could this verse be more about using shocking language to talk about the imprudent and impetuous nature of Judas' betrayal and suicide than the actually gory details of how it happened?