Bible Question?

[paulespino]

Would appreciate answers from you guys for the following questions, Thanks.

1) Why a temporary resident may not eat the unleavened bread?
45but a temporary resident or a hired workerd may not eat of it.

2)Who is the native born in this verse?
The same law applies both to the native-born and to the foreignerh residing among you.”

[Candlepower]

Paul,

What verse?

Candlepower

[paulespino]

Would appreciate answers from you guys for the following questions, Thanks.

1) Why a temporary resident may not eat the unleavened bread?
45but a temporary resident or a hired workerd may not eat of it.

2)Who is the native born in this verse?
The same law applies both to the native-born and to the foreignerh residing among you.”

Sorry, I mistakenly deleted the verse.

1) Exodus 12:45 TNIV

2) Exodus 12:49 TNIV

[Candlepower]

Paul,

Actually, I'm eager to read what Paidion (and any others) might have to say about this. Paidion knows words. But for what it's worth, here are my thoughts about this text: Exodus 12:43-49 (NKJV)

43 And the LORD said to Moses and Aaron, "This is the ordinance of the Passover: No foreigner shall eat it.
44 But every man's servant who is bought for money, when you have circumcised him, then he may eat it.
45 A sojourner and a hired servant shall not eat it.
46 In one house it shall be eaten; you shall not carry any of the flesh outside the house, nor shall you break one of its bones.
47 All the congregation of Israel shall keep it.
48 And when a stranger dwells with you and wants to keep the Passover to the LORD, let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it; and he
shall be as a native of the land. For no uncircumcised person shall eat it.
49 One law shall be for the native-born and for the stranger who dwells among you."


1) Verse 45 says “A sojourner and a hired servant shall not eat it.” However, verse 48 explains that the sojourner may eat the Passover if:

a) He “dwells with you,” and
b) He and any males with him submit to the surgery (circumcision) that identified the covenant community at that time.

A hired worker, it seems to me, probably had his own home where he was expected to eat the Passover.

2) Verse 49. “One law shall be for the native-born and for the stranger who dwells among you.”
The native-born person was apparently anyone born into the covenant community, which was "all the congregation of Israel." No doubt, he had been circumcised at age eight days. I think circumcision was the “One law.” It determined who may and who may not participate in the Passover ceremony. It applied to both the native-born members of the household and to the foreign guest (sojourner) temporarily dwelling there.

It seems to me that Exodus 12:43-49 declares that, as a rule, a foreigner was forbidden to eat the Passover. That's because he was not identified with God’s Covenant Community. He was not circumcised, therefore he was not included in the congregation of Israel. But there was an exception. If the foreigner was a temporary guest in a home, and he desired to participate, and he was willing to submit to the Covenant Sign (circumcision), then he was allowed to eat the Passover meal just as any other member of the congregation of Israel was allowed.

A key in this text seems to me to be the last sentence in verse 48, “For no uncircumcised person shall eat it.” Unqualified participation was offensive to God.

God bless you,

Candlepower

[paulespino]

Thanks Candlepower.

Do you think a Native born includes the children of the proselytes?

[Candlepower]

Do you think a Native born includes the children of the proselytes?

Paul,

I’m not completely sure, but it seems to me that “native-born” in Exodus 12:49 designates those born of Jewish parents, unlike proselytes, who were converted gentiles born of gentile parents.

I think “native-born” has less to do with birth location and more to do with birth parentage. If a gentile Syrian couple traveling from Syria to Egypt had a baby while spending a few days in Jerusalem, the Jews would not have considered the child native-born. It was born “in country,” but not to Jewish parents.

Conversely, a child born to Jewish parents while they were outside Israel’s borders may have been considered “native-born.” I don’t think Jews during their captivity in Babylon considered their children born there to be foreigners and gentiles just because they weren’t born in Israel. When the Jews returned to Israel, I don’t think they thought those among them who had been born in Babylon were foreigners who needed to become proselytes.

Circumcised converts (righteous proselytes) were considered full members of the Jewish community, and I expect their children were treated the same as the children of non-proselyte (native-born) parents.

In answer to your question, yes, I do think children born to converted proselyte parents were considered "native-born," while their parents retained the designation of proselytes. Regardless, both the parents and their children were to be considered full members of the congregation of Israel.

I didn’t know until you introduced this topic, Paul (and stimulated me to do a little thinking and research) that there were two kinds of proselytes: Gate Proselytes and Righteous Proselytes. Here is a blurb I copied from Wikipedia. I am eager to read contributions from others out there in Forumland who have more knowledge and truth than I do about this subject.

From Wikipedia

There are two kinds of proselyte:
1. Ger tzedek (righteous proselytes, proselytes of righteousness, religious proselyte, devout proselyte)
2. Ger toshav (resident proselyte, proselytes of the gate, limited proselyte, half-proselyte)
A righteous proselyte was a Gentile who had converted to Judaism, was bound to all the doctrines and precepts of the Jewish economy, and was considered a full member of the Jewish people. They were to be circumcised and immersed in a mikvah should they wish to eat of the Passover sacrifice. A gate proselyte was a "resident alien" who lived in the Land of Israel and followed some of the customs. They were not required to be circumcised nor to comply with the whole of the Torah. They were bound only to conform to the seven precepts of Noah, the Noahide Laws: do not worship idols, do not blaspheme God's name, do not murder, do not commit immoral sexual acts, do not steal, do not tear the limb from a living animal, and do not fail to establish courts of justice.

God bless you,

Candlepower

[paulespino]

Thanks Candlepower.

[paulespino]

a) But some of them didn’t listen and kept some of it until morning. But by then it was full of maggots and had a terrible smell. Moses was very angry with them.
Tyndale House Publishers, 2004, S. Ex 16:20

Why do the Manna becomes spoil if it is kept for a few hours?

b) 24 So they put some aside until morning, just as Moses had commanded. And in the morning the leftover food was wholesome and good, without maggots or odor
Tyndale House Publishers, 2004, S. Ex 16:24

Why is the freshness of manna remains on the seventh day even though it was gathered on the sixth day?

[Candlepower]

Hello Paul,

Good question concerning Exodus chapter 16. These are my thoughts.

Moses instructed His people to gather manna six days per week (vs 4, 26). Five of those days, they were to gather enough to feed their household each of those days (their daily bread). He instructed them to gather a double portion on the sixth day (vs 5, 22). The double portion they gathered on the sixth was enough to feed them that day and the seventh day, which was the Sabbath (v 23). God provided no manna on the Sabbath Day (v 26). It was a day of rest. (v 30).

Moses instructed those who mistakenly or greedily gathered too much manna to throw it out that evening (v 19). Anyone who disobeyed and did not throw out their excess Manna discovered that it became spoiled and wormy by the next morning (v 20). Miraculously, however, the excess supply they gathered on the sixth day (in preparation for day seven — the Sabbath), did not rot (v 24).

God selectively spoiled excess manna. He spoiled any excess that was not gathered for the Sabbath day, but preserved the extra supply gathered for the Sabbath. In short, He spoiled unlawfully stockpiled manna.

In my opinion, God did this and to:

1) Test His people’s faith and obedience (v 4)
2) Teach them they could depend on Him for their daily bread. (v 15)
3) Prove it is futile to disobey Him.

Jesus reaffirmed the principle that we should trust God to supply our daily bread when He taught us to pray, “Give us this day our daily bread.” (Mt 6:11)

Candlepower

[paulespino]

Thanks for your reply Candlepower.