Study Note on Ge 6:2 (NET Bible):
The Hebrew phrase translated “sons of God” (בְנֵי־הָאֱלֹהִים, bÿne-ha’elohim) occurs only here (Gen 6:2, 4) and in Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7. There are three major interpretations of the phrase here.
(1) In the Book of Job the phrase clearly refers to angelic beings. In Gen 6 the “sons of God” are distinct from “humankind,” suggesting they were not human. This is consistent with the use of the phrase in Job. Since the passage speaks of these beings cohabiting with women, they must have taken physical form or possessed the bodies of men. An early Jewish tradition preserved in 1 En. 6-7 elaborates on this angelic revolt and even names the ringleaders.
(2) Not all scholars accept the angelic interpretation of the “sons of God,” however. Some argue that the “sons of God” were members of Seth’s line, traced back to God through Adam in Gen 5, while the “daughters of humankind” were descendants of Cain. But, as noted above, the text distinguishes the “sons of God” from humankind (which would include the Sethites as well as the Cainites) and suggests that the “daughters of humankind” are human women in general, not just Cainites.
(3) Others identify the “sons of God” as powerful tyrants, perhaps demon-possessed, who viewed themselves as divine and, following the example of Lamech (see Gen 4:19), practiced polygamy. But usage of the phrase “sons of God” in Job militates against this view.
I have taken interpretation (1) as the most satisfactory..."they must have taken physical form or possessed the bodies of men".
Possession of the men seems to make sense, as the offspring of the Nephilim and the women they initially "took" continue to be born through regular parents later in the Bible (iow, after the Flood). The idea behind this is that the Nephilim lived on, being spiritual beings, though the bodies they had inhabited were destroyed in the Flood.
In reply to Brother Derek,
I see some problems with this idea. First, you would have to show (from the bible) that demons are, in fact, fallen angels. I really don't have problem with this per se, but the bible does not tell us this.
This
does get tricky, doesn't it? (I've listened to Steve's series on Spiritual Warfare). The Bible does identify demons as (false) gods and as evil spirits who look for a place to reside inside human bodies. Interpretation (1, above) may be the only biblical passage that can support the idea that at least some demons may be the Nephilim.
The Bible does tell of a certain class fallen angels:
And the angels who did not stay within their own position of authority, but left their proper dwelling, he has kept in eternal chains under gloomy darkness until the judgment of the great day— (Jude 6)
(and)
For if God did not spare angels when they sinned, but cast them into hell [Gk, tartarus] and committed them to chains [some mss, pits] of gloomy darkness to be kept until the judgment; (2 Pe 2:4)
These passages have no biblical explanation that I know of. However, drawing upon 1 Enoch (as Jude did); we would have an explanation of who this class may be: the Watchers, aka, Nephilim.
Second, supposing these angel/demons did posses men, why would it produce giant people? (And using the bible to interpret the bible, per Num. 13:33, we have to assume they are physical giants of some kind). Why would a spiritual possesion affect its offspring in any way, much less pass along some type of DNA?
There are problems with the word "giants." The Hebrew is Nephilim which I take to mean "the fallen ones." But the LXX and some of this other literature has
gigantes (giants). The ESV and other versions translate Nephilim directly thus showing a preference for the original Hebrew. In this case, I prefer a literal translation (as I usually do for study purposes).
Numbers 13:33 (ESV):
"And there we saw the Nephilim (the sons of Anak, who come from the Nephilim), and we seemed to ourselves like grasshoppers, and so we seemed to them.”
The Anakites and other decsendants of the Nephilim (Canaanites) are described as "taller and stronger" than the Hebrews (see, De 1:28; 9:1-3). Goliath may fall into this class of people as well. One king the Hebrews encountered was 13 feet tall (forgot the guy's name offhand). Getting back to the translation "giants"; the LXX and these other texts may have chosen this simply because these people were really big...they apparently had "big DNA". But I don't view them as especially physically odd outside of this. I mean, I don't think they came in Flying Saucers ad other such nonsense, lol
To sum up about fallen angels and demons. It seems that the original Nephilim may have been bound after they sinned. But as to whether the demons (who still roam the earth) somehow descended from them...or just how that works...is hard to understand. We know that
some fallen angels have been bound for a long time. Were they all bound? We don't know. We just know demons are "here" and active (but don't know if they are fallen angels)....
I put little to no stock in ancient Jewish comentary/apocraphal writings. They are always so mystical and esoteric (interesting though). A lot of bizzare ideas could be "proven" by using their writings. (like over in the age of the earth thread, where Dr. Schroeder used this kind of thing in the paper by him there).
This probably illustrates how I'm a "non-fundamentalist" (for lack of vocaulary). Since the Bible wasn't written in a historical vacuum I assume that ideas and beliefs that were around at any given time were known by the Jewish people and therefore, the biblical authors. In the NT, Jude quotes from 1 Enoch and alludes to The Assumption of Moses. To me this provides a very real "context" in terms of exegesis and hermenuetics. I don't "believe" in these extra-canoical books, per se. But I do see them as very important to understand the historical and religious setting of the Bible, etc.
Lastly for now:
To be born by the Spirit of God is to be given a new nature; made a new creation. This is not the prerogative of demons as far as I can see in the bible.
How would you explain when Jesus said to the Jews in the Temple, "You are of your father, the devil" ? Jesus seemed to be speaking plainly and literally to them. If this was a metaphor of sorts...then would God as our Father be metaphorical as well? Of course not. It appears to me that Jesus is saying something quite deliberate and forthright. We tend to understand our salvation and status as the children of God through Paul and other NT authors. But is there anything from Jesus we can learn here? Is the devil
literally the father of at least some unbelievers? Jesus said he was. I don't see how we can get past this!
I gtg, thanx,
Rick
Gotta go to work. Get back later.