Two Ways of Justification?

[Homer]

In Romans 2 Paul wrote:

Romans 2:5-10 (NASB)

5. But because of your stubbornness and unrepentant heart you are storing up wrath for yourself in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God, 6. who will render to each person according to his deeds: 7. to those who by perseverance in doing good seek for glory and honor and immortality, eternal life; 8. but to those who are selfishly ambitious and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, wrath and indignation. 9. There will be tribulation and distress for every soul of man who does evil, of the Jew first and also of the Greek, 10. but glory and honor and peace to everyone who does good, to the Jew first and also to the Greek.

Romans 2:13 (NASB)

13. for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified.

But then in Chapter 3 Paul wrote:

Romans 3:20 (NASB)

20. because by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight; for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin.

Paul appears to contradict himself here. Aside from any idea of inspiration, Paul seems too brilliant for this.

Some say that Paul teaches works as a means of justification. Don Dewelt, Romans Realized, specifically says that in vss, 7-10 "There is no indication here that sinless perfection is the requirement for receiving eternal life, but rather a constant, unwavering and honest effort to 'attain glory and honor and incorruption', by doing that which they know is right - right according to God's law".

A second interpretation is promoted by many evangelicals, We are justified by faith, not works, which are evidentiary. C.E.B. Cranfield, A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the Epistle to the Romans, says that the "good work" to which God gives eternal life is probably Christians' "conduct as an expression of their faith".

Jack Cottrell, NIV Commentary on Romans disagrees with both above. Cottrell acknowledges that in some sense that every person, including Christians, will be judged by works in the final judgment. But of Paul, in this section of Romans, Cottrell writes: "...as a matter of fact - and this is Paul's whole point in this section - there is no one at all in this classification" who is justified. It is only theoretically or hypothetically true. "Not one single Jew and not one single gentile will be in fact accepted by God in the final judgment because of his good works or obedience to law." "The actual state of things is given in 3:20, that by works of law no one will be justified, since the law judges everyone to be a sinner."

Cottrell writes "...anyone who perseveres in good works, who is a doer of the law, who keeps the commandments, will be justified. This is a statement of fact. Any Jew or gentile who completely obeys the law available to him will be justified. But as a matter of fact - and this is Paul's whole point in this section - there is no one at all in this category, everyone has sinned. But in view of the universality of sin, it is only theoretically or hypothetically true."

Douglas Moo, Romans, vol. I, writes "Paul sets forth the biblical conditions for attaining eternal life apart from Christ. Understood this way, Paul is not speaking hypothetically. But once his doctrine of universal human powerlessness under sin has been developed, it becomes clear the promise can, in fact, never become operative."

Moses Lard, a Commentary on Romans, says "...it is important to notice the sense in which the word justified is here used. The persons are those who have perfectly kept the law. They are not sinners, nor have they ever been. Hence they are not justified in the sense of being released from sin or pardoned. They are justified in the sense of being acquitted when accused, on the score of absolute innocence. They are simply declared to be just or sinless. Justification in such a case would be merited and could not be withheld. But in this sense no soul of man can be justified."

[dizerner]

Awesome post, Homer. I was just writing a study on this. I see Scripture as offering two ways to life, one a hypothetical way no human can achieve. But it's often preached in Scripture, I believe as the tutor of the Law to teach of us our need and our separation from God and inability to please him adequately, and thus to drive us to grace instead of settling for a form of self-righteousness. I do think Scripture teaches us that faith has accompanying works that stem from already being justified rather than an attempt to be justified. Thus sanctification becomes, not about being better and better every day in every way, but allowing more of Christ to live through us and being conformed to his image that way. He was the seed that fell into the ground and died, and we can be assured that seed had the power to reproduce his very life. Can we still be judged based on the grace we allow to work in us? Well it seems Paul thought so. Thanks for that study and blessings to you!

[steve7150]

Romans 2:13 (NASB)

13. for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified.

But then in Chapter 3 Paul wrote:

Romans 3:20 (NASB)

20. because by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight; for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin.

Paul appears to contradict himself here. Aside from any idea of inspiration, Paul seems too brilliant for this.




Perhaps the doers of the Law is referring to the NT law or the Law of Christ but in the Law of Moses no flesh will be justified, since the knowledge of sin does come through the Laws of Moses.

[Paidion]

Good observations, Homer.

I don't think the word EVER means "counted righteous" (even though you are not) as modern evangelicals and fundamentalists understand it.

The word DOES have two meanings:

1. The modern meaning. When I was a teacher I could justify what I was teaching the children by showing that it conformed to the requirements of the local school board as well as the Department of Education. The word seems to be used in this sense in the following passage:

Matthew 12:37 "For by your words you will be justified, and by your words you will be condemned."

2. The most common meaning of the word is not "counted righteous" but "rendered righteous." Some will point out that "there are none righteous" for no one is sinless or without flaws. But many people are said to be righteous in both OT and NT scriptures who still had flaws and sometimes did what was wrong. But their lives in general were righteous.


With these two meanings in mind, I don't think Paul contradicted himself in the two verses you quoted:

Romans 2:13 (NASB). for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified.

Romans 3:20 (NASB) because by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight; for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin

In the first verse, Paul may be using "justified" in the first sense. If one keeps God's law as Christ expressed it, then one's actions are justified, shown to be in conformity to what God requires.

The second verse, shows that no one can be rendered righteous through self-effort in attempting to keep the Law (here the Law of Moses seems to be the referent). To be rendered righteous, one must appropriate the enabling grace of God, by coöperating with God's grace. For we cannot become righteous by mere self-effort. Not will God unilaterally render us righteous. But we together with God make righteousness possible.

2 Corinthians 6:1 (ESV) Working together with him, then, we appeal to you not to receive the grace of God in vain.

[Homer]

Paidion,

Referring to what Moses Lard wrote:

"Hence they are not justified in the sense of being released from sin or pardoned. They are justified in the sense of being acquitted when accused, on the score of absolute innocence. They are simply declared to be just or sinless. Justification in such a case would be merited and could not be withheld. But in this sense no soul of man can be justified."

It is a given that we can never be justified in the sense of being innocent. We are all guilty and are pardoned (forgiven). Pardons do not come to the innocent but to the condemned.

I think where we have differed on sanctification (and there may be no actual difference) is this quote I came across today:

"A change of character is a work of time, a change of state is, or may be, the work of a moment"

The gospel informs us that from the very beginning of the life of faith we are justified, sanctified, regenerated, forgiven, reconciled, and adopted. And each of this is a change of state, all by grace, nothing merited.

The sanctification that follows (change of character), however fast or slow, is also a work of grace.

[Paidion]

"Hence they are not justified in the sense of being released from sin or pardoned. They are justified in the sense of being acquitted when accused, on the score of absolute innocence. They are simply declared to be just or sinless. Justification in such a case would be merited and could not be withheld. But in this sense no soul of man can be justified."

Yes, that is the first sense to which I referred—though not necessarily "sinless" in every sense, but "sinless" with regard to that for which they are accused. Back to my teaching example. If I had been accused of teaching the wrong things, I could justify myself by showing that what I was teaching conformed to the requirements of the Department of Education and local school board. This didn't imply that I made no mistakes in my mode of teaching or that I never taught anything except what was absolutely necessary.

It is a given that we can never be justified in the sense of being innocent.

If that is the case, then how could Paul have written "... the doers of the law will be justified" (Rom 2:13)? Do you take the position that this would be the case only in theory, but impossible in practice? If so, how could Paul have written:

For he will render to everyone according to his works: to those who by perseverance in well‑doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, he will give lasting life; but for those who are self-seeking and are not persuaded by the truth, but are persuaded by wickedness, there will be wrath and fury.

Affliction and anguish for every person who does evil ... but glory and honour and well-being for every one who does good ... For God shows no partiality. (Romans 2:6-11)

[dizerner]

"... the doers of the law will be justified" (Rom 2:13)?

well-being for every one who does good

to those who by perseverance in well‑doing

How does logically prove that Paul thought a person could be justified by works? None of those statements logically contradict "there is none righteous, no not one."

[Paidion]

None of those statements logically contradict "there is none righteous, no not one."

Yes, Paul used that passage to support his position that both Jews and Gentiles are under sin, that is, there is no one who has not sinned. But he didn't use the passage to show that no one can be righteous.

As obedient children, do not be conformed to the passions of your former ignorance, but as he who called you is holy, you also be holy in all your conduct, since it is written, “You shall be holy, for I am holy.”

Peter certainly believed that people could be holy. Furthermore God wouldn't require us to be holy if it were impossible for us to be holy.

Psalm 14 from which the passage is quoted makes clear about whom the Psalmist is writing:

The fool says in his heart, “There is no God.” They are corrupt, they do abominable deeds, there is none who does good. The LORD looks down from heaven on the children of man, to see if there are any who understand, who seek after God.They have all turned aside; together they have become corrupt; there is none who does good, not even one. Have they no knowledge, all the evildoers who eat up my people as they eat bread and do not call upon the LORD?

The Psalmist begins by talking about fools who are atheists. He then says these fools are corrupt, and do evil. None of them do good. He speaks of "evil doers. They are corrupt, they do abominable deeds, there is none who does good. The Psalmist is not saying that it is impossible for any one to be righteous.

[dizerner]

Paul was talking about the inherent nature of man and concluded with sweeping universal statements over and over again in succession. You say:

"Furthermore God wouldn't require us to be holy if it were impossible for us to be holy."

How about if I modify it just a little, would you disagree with this:

"Furthermore God wouldn't require us to be holy if it were impossible for us to be holy without it being solely by his grace."

[Homer]

Paidion,

You wrote:

Homer, you wrote:
It is a given that we can never be justified in the sense of being innocent.

If that is the case, then how could Paul have written "... the doers of the law will be justified" (Rom 2:13)? Do you take the position that this would be the case only in theory, but impossible in practice? If so, how could Paul have written:

For he will render to everyone according to his works: to those who by perseverance in well‑doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, he will give lasting life; but for those who are self-seeking and are not persuaded by the truth, but are persuaded by wickedness, there will be wrath and fury.

Affliction and anguish for every person who does evil ... but glory and honour and well-being for every one who does good ... For God shows no partiality. (Romans 2:6-11)

But who are the "doers of the law"? If we have ever sinned, even once, are we not a lawbreakers guilty of all?

James 2:10 (NASB)

10. For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles in one point, he has become guilty of all.


Paul has carefully shown that both Jews and gentiles have law, one by special revelation, the other by general revelation. All have sinned. None are innocent; there is not one in that category. So what of the final judgment? Paul says we will all, every individual, face a judgment according to what we have done. Yet Paul also said:

Romans 8:1 (NASB)

8. Therefore there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus.

No condemnation, Grk. katakrima, meaning penalty, punishment, doom. Paul says emphatically that we, who are in Christ, will not be condemned. So then why will those in Christ be judged based on what they have done? I would suggest two things:

1. God will judge in righteousness. The works of those in Christ will show that they are, in fact, in Christ. The works are evidentiary. And the chief of those works is this:

John 6:28-29 (NASB)

28. Therefore they said to Him, “What shall we do, so that we may work the works of God?” 29. Jesus answered and said to them, “This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent.”


2. We will be judged according to what we have done for the purpose of receiving rewards. This is well attested in the scriptures.