ESV translation

[Guest]

Thoughts on the English Standard Version (ESV)?

[Guest]

I've been a long time NASB user, but the one thing that has always been a problem for me is the sentence structure. I just can't get my tough around many verses. Fine for study, but hard in public reading situations. I spent time with the NIV. Good for reading, but I was never happy with it for study since I generally prefer a "word-for-word" emphasis.

I switched over to the ESV about six months ago and it has been a real blessing. It is an "essentially literal" translation that also strives for literary excellence.

I can't see going back to the NASB and will stick with the ESV.

[Guest]

It is an "essentially literal" translation

I like the fact that it's closer to a word-for-word translation, but I'm not hip on retaining the old-English style. I could simply use the new King James; I'd rather have modern style with literal translation.

Regardless, I came across this verse when I was researching what I think to be Biblical - that the unbeliever is guilty of his sin regardless of whether he has heard the law or gospel. The verse seems to confirm this:
Leviticus 5:17:
If a person sins and does what is forbidden in any of the LORD's commands, even though he does not know it, he is guilty and will be held responsible. (NIV - note that all other common versions render it the same way)

Now read it in the ESV:
If anyone sins, doing any of the things that by the LORD's commandments ought not to be done, though he did not know it, then realizes his guilt, he shall bear his iniquity.

"then realizes his guilt" is not present in any other version. This basically reverses the meaning of the verse (it's equivalent to "then is enlightened by the gospel" to my mind). Does every other version have this wrong? I kinda doubt it.

[Guest]

17 “If a person sins, and commits any of these things which are forbidden to be done by the commandments of the Lord, though he does not know it, yet he is guilty and shall bear his iniquity. 18 And he shall bring to the priest a ram without blemish from the flock, with your valuation, as a trespass offering. So the priest shall make atonement for him regarding his ignorance in which he erred and did not know it, and it shall be forgiven him. 19 It is a trespass offering; he has certainly trespassed against the Lord.”
New King James Version.

Taking the paragraph as a whole, it would seem to imply that the person was unaware of their sin at the time they sinned (i.e. meaning the person realized their guilt later). Otherwise how would that person know that they have to bring a ram as a trepass offering (i.e. bear their iniquity)?

In addition to ESV, the NET Bible and the Message also translate this verse by making clear this implied sequence of events.

[BTW, I'm no expert about this. This is just my way of trying to figure out why the translators did so.]