Open Theism and the Scriptures
Posted: Mon May 14, 2018 11:04 pm
I know there are scriptures cited in support of Calvinism, "arminianism" (whatever that is), and open theism. Some of the scriptures seem to me to be very difficult to explain for open theism advocates. For example:
John 6:39 (NASB)
39. This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day.
Scholars seem to agree that Jesus spoke Aramaic. John gives us the meaning of Jesus' words in Greek. In the Greek of the above verse John used the "perfect indicative active" to inform us that Jesus was saying that even before He spoke, in the past, God had given the "all" to Him. I can see how the Calvinist can readily say that this was God's deterministic election. I can also see how the "Arminian" would say that this is God's foreknowledge at play. I would like to hear how the open theist would answer. D. A. Carson commented that John was "a happy compatibilist".
John 6:39 (NASB)
39. This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day.
Scholars seem to agree that Jesus spoke Aramaic. John gives us the meaning of Jesus' words in Greek. In the Greek of the above verse John used the "perfect indicative active" to inform us that Jesus was saying that even before He spoke, in the past, God had given the "all" to Him. I can see how the Calvinist can readily say that this was God's deterministic election. I can also see how the "Arminian" would say that this is God's foreknowledge at play. I would like to hear how the open theist would answer. D. A. Carson commented that John was "a happy compatibilist".