Homer, on what basis do you say that "correction" is not "punishment"?Homer wrote:The Universalists, at least some of them, maintain that in the hereafter those who are unsaved will undergo an indefinite period of "correction", which is not punishment.
Do you consider retributionism to be the only theory of punishment? What about the deterance theory of punishment? And the reformative theory? You may want to google "theories of punishment" in order to enlarge your perception. Here's a good one to get you started:
http://www.bigissueground.com/philosoph ... ment.shtml
Furthermore, as I understand their position, this correction shall last until repentance, i.e., "every knee shall bow and every tongue confess", takes place.
All right.
I don't know what "the Universalist" thinks he knows about that matter. But as I understand it, the length of time is determined more by the obstinacy of a person than by the degree of his wickedness.It has been suggested that it will take perhaps a million years or so for a person like Hitler to be "corrected". How does the Universalist know this?
Jesus seemed to think so! He shared with His disciples a descriptiveIs there some supposed link between the number or seriousness of sins committed in this life and the length (amount?) of "correction" required?
parable concerning how three classes of Hia servants would be treated at His coming [Luke 12:35-48]:
"Let your loins be girded and your lamps burning, and be like men who are waiting for their master to come home from the marriage feast, so that they may open to him at once when he comes and knocks. Blessed are those servants whom the master finds awake when he comes; truly, I say to you, he will gird himself and have them sit at table, and he will come and serve them. If he comes in the second watch, or in the third, and finds them so, blessed are those servants! But know this, that if the householder had known at what hour the thief was coming, he would not have left his house to be broken into. You also must be ready; for the Son of man is coming at an unexpected hour."
Peter said, "Lord, are you telling this parable for us or for all?"
And the Lord said, "Who then is the faithful and wise steward, whom his master will set over his household, to give them their portion of food at the proper time? Blessed is that servant whom his master when he comes will find so doing. Truly, I tell you, he will set him over all his possessions.
But if that servant says to himself, ‘My master is delayed in coming,’ and begins to beat the menservants and the maidservants, and to eat and drink and get drunk, the master of that servant will come on a day when he does not expect him and at an hour he does not know, and will punish him, and put him with the unfaithful.
And that servant who knew his master’s will, but did not make ready or act according to his will, shall receive a severe beating.
But he who did not know, and did what deserved a beating, shall receive a light beating.
Every one to whom much is given, of him will much be required; and of him to whom men commit much they will demand the more.
At this point, Jesus makes one of the most signifant statements He had ever made concerning His purpose to correct:
The Baptism of Fire:
"I came to cast fire upon the earth; and would that it were already kindled! I have a baptism to be baptized with; and how I am constrained until it is accomplished! Luke 12:49,50
Here Jesus expressed His intense desire to carry out the fiery, purifying, baptism.
It is not known. Indeed, it may even be more likely that Hitler will more readily repent. Do you know someone who thinks otherwise?How is it known that a good person who is a convinced atheist or agnostic (I know such a person) will not be more difficult to bring to repentance than a person like Hitler?
Again, do you know someone who is making this claim? Or are you attacking a straw man here?Is the reason you think it will take so long to "correct" Hitler an emotional response to the great and numerous sins he committed in this life?
It doesn't seem so to me.It would seem the greater suffering inflicted would be related to the degree or amount of sin as punishment, but not correlated to "correction".
I don't know what Universalists believe, but I believe so. But a person can be persuaded so that he will freely choose that is against his original intention. Such persuasion influences his choice, but does not negate his free will.Also do you Universalists believe that all through the process of "correction" that the subject has free will?
On what? On man's possession of free will? On being influenced to change one's intention? On being corrected? Please specify.Do you have any scriptures to support your position on this?