Psalms 112 (Messianic?)

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darinhouston
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Psalms 112 (Messianic?)

Post by darinhouston » Sun Nov 08, 2009 3:35 pm

(refs are to NASB)
Let me know what you think of this -- the translations vary a lot for this passage, and the context changes a little between some of them. It struck me this morning as we were going through the passage in bible study that in the context of the psalm and the focus on the effect of the "righteous" in posterity by the remembrance/memorial that the body of Christ provides through their righteousnesses, that the term "wicked" in v.10 might be a reference not to wicked "individuals," as typifying all wicked ones but to the wicked "one."

I haven't done a full word study, but I just did a quick check of the Hebrew, and it looks like the first reference uses "rasha" (singular, as in wicked one) while the second uses "rashaim" (plural, wicked ones or "group" of wicked ones).
10.The wicked (rasha) will see it and be vexed, He will gnash his teeth and melt away; The desire of the wicked (rashaim) will perish.
I'm not sure why none of the translators seem to go that route, but it seems to make better sense to me (several translations even throw in the words "they" and convert it to plural - completely ignoring the hebrew plurality. The NET bible translation surprisingly slips in the plurality (they usually leave things intact) and though the notes at least recognize the plurality they merely suggest it must be a reference to a single representative typifying the collective (as done earlier with the righteous). It does make some sense since a representative one of the "righteous" is in mind throughout the psalm, but I don't see that as a required translation and think they should at least keep it singular in the text and leave it to the reader to do the interpretation on this one if a "representative member" is in mind.

In looking at it, though, there's another "singular" in the passage that most translations take as a "representative member." Looking at vv. 2 and 3 ("HE" and "HIS") are used. I similarly see that these could be a reference to God (as wicked can be seen as Satan) and not the righteous men in general. Also, the term translated "descendants" can be translated "posterity," which sounds more likely in light of the context of speaking of those who do righteousness making a long term impact as the body of Christ being a memorial to Him (legacy as a group instead of as individuals). Otherwise, this might also be translated "seed," (used in the KJV) which would then seem to be a reference to Christ. The following "singular" uses of he and him do seem to refer to representative righteous ones, but it could be that these "bookends" are references to God and Satan, which would change the context in some subtle ways of the rest main parts of the psalm.
2. His descendants will be mighty on earth; The generation of the upright will be blessed.
3.Wealth and riches are in his house, And his righteousness endures forever.
The very next verse speaks of graciousness, compassion, and righteousness, but I note several commentaries and translator notes comment that the term translated "compassionate" is an adjective only used elsewhere in Scripture in connection with God. If so, then all three of these verses could be a reference to the Father (perhaps the "upright" in v. 4 referring either to the men or to God), while the rest of the passage speaks of the representative ones and group of righteous making up the body of Christ.
4 Light arises in the darkness for the upright; He is gracious and compassionate and righteous.
If so, then the Psalm isn't really about the individual, but instead the effect of the Church at large and the memorial throughout time to His greatness as its individuals practice His righteousnesses, and in the main effect it has as a slam in the face of Satan.

What do you think?

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darinhouston
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Re: Psalms 112 (Messianic?)

Post by darinhouston » Sun Nov 08, 2009 10:06 pm

I found some bible study notes online (from Houston's FBC, coincidentally) that confirms at least someone else views the wicked one being satan, and actually suggests all the references to the righteous one are to Christ, who's horn will be exalted (and not the church or individuals forming it) and that, therefore, this is one of the foremost Messianic Psalms.

I think I like that even better.

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Re: Psalms 112

Post by darinhouston » Mon Nov 09, 2009 12:57 pm

You might find this interlinear helpful -- sure does seem like a difficult passage to translate -- lots of pronouns and prepositional phrases to couple...

http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInte ... psa112.pdf

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darinhouston
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Re: Psalms 112

Post by darinhouston » Mon Nov 09, 2009 4:48 pm

I seem to be going it on my own here -- that always makes me nervous. If there's someone with a working Hebrew knowledge, please critique my exposition and alternative translations below...

This turns this passage into a clearly Messianic passage -- Psalm 111 and 112 seem to go together since they are both acrostics. 110 is about God -- some say 111 is about man. They both follow 109, which is clearly messianic. Why can't 110 be about the Father, and 111 be an elaboration on how He works it out through His Son to defeat Satan?

Psalm 112

Praise the LORD!

Blessed is the man who fears the LORD,
Who delights greatly in His (God’s) commandments.

2 His (God’s) descendants (seed, that is Christ) will be mighty on earth; The generation of the upright (of Christ, that is the age of the Church) will be blessed.
3 Wealth and riches will be in his (Christ’s) house, And his righteousness endures forever (amen).
4 Unto the upright (Christ) there arises light in the darkness (he brings light to the dark world); He is gracious, and full of compassion, and righteous (“he is” is not in the original text – also, these adjectives, one of them only elsewhere used in connection with God, could actually describe the light Christ brings).
5 A good man deals graciously and lends; He will guide his affairs with discretion (I think the Hebrew could be translated “the man is fair, he lends and is gracious, and will maintain his cause and judgment”).
6 Surely he will never be shaken; The righteous (righteous one – Christ) will be in everlasting remembrance. (could also be translated, “surely he will never be shaken, he will be in everlasting remembrance, and he will be the righteous one.”)
7 He (Christ) will not be afraid of evil tidings; His heart is steadfast, trusting in the LORD (THIS IS THE TETRAGRAMMETON – JEHOVAH).
8 His heart is established; He will not be afraid, Until he sees his desire upon his enemies (this is weird – “his desire” is not in the original text – “until” can be translated “even when” so that it could read “he will not be afraid even when he sees his enemies.”)
9 He (Christ) has dispersed (spread seeds – this is quoted by Paul in 2 Corinthians 9 just prior to discussing God spreading seeds, see below) abroad, He (Christ) has given to the poor (we, the poor in spirit); His righteousness endures forever (amen); His horn will be exalted with honor (this just calls out to be Messianic – in apocalyptic literature, the horn speaks usually of a “rule” or “ruler” – it can be seen as “vessel” if this passage was about the body of Christ as a vessel, but it makes little sense in connection with individual believers).
10 The wicked (wicked one, Christ’s enemy, the devil) will see it and be grieved (seeing Christ’s defeating him and his in judgment through the bringing of the light and the spreading of the seeds to the faithful/righteous); He will gnash his teeth and melt away (amen, final destruction of Satan); The desire of the wicked (those that follow the wicked one) shall perish (in the end, as a result of the judgment).
Paul quotes 112:9 in 2 Corinthians 9:9. Most commentaries see this as the tail end of the discussion about the corinthians needing to be giving just as the psalm tells folks to do. But, the following passage speaks of God's spreading of seeds for righteousness to grow. If so, this is a reference not to what men should do (though they should) but to what God has done and will do. if so, this actually supports the above exposition, no?

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Re: Psalms 112 (Messianic?)

Post by darinhouston » Thu Nov 12, 2009 10:04 pm

anyone?

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