roblaine wrote:Hi Jugulum,
Jugulum wrote:I'm sorry... What conversation do you think we were having? Was I claiming anything about the decrees of God? Did I say I think God exhaustively decides everything that happens?
Why do you think I have some reason to answer this question?
Robin: Can you explain to me why you're being so uncharitable as to use that kind of charged rhetoric against me?
I didn't see my remarks as "charged rhetoric.” I was however, a little put off by your post. If you have no reason to answer the question why respond at all?
Ah, I think I see part of the problem--it's partly miscommunication. You thought I had replied to his question about homosexuality and God causing sin, but I actually had replied to a different one.
Steve's question about God causing sin was a new question, new topic, addressed at Calvinists in general. It wasn't part of our exchange, and I didn't reply to that post.
I was responding to a different post, where he was replying (sort of) to my comments about his use of the Prodigal Son. He had been trying to use that parable to draw inferences about whether repentance can happen before regeneration. I objected, in a nutshell, because he hadn't presented any reason to think the parable was trying to teach anything about it. I pointed out that I could just as easily "infer" that because the father didn't seek the son till the son had started to return, then God doesn't do anything to seek us until after we repent. Both inferences are silly--they have nothing to do with what the parable was teaching, as far as I can see. If Steve wants to use the passage that way, he needs to try to show that Jesus was intending to say something about regeneration. What he was doing wasn't exegesis. It wasn't good or valid use of the Bible.
Then when he replied to my post, he didn't bother to respond to any of that. He ignored it, abandoned his use of the parable, and went off on a tangent about how I'm making choices. That somewhat frustrated me. I chose to conclude our exchange by reiterating the same basic point I had been making--we need to base our conclusions on exegesis. We need to get our theology from passages that we can demonstrate were intended to teach that theology. Not from philosophical arguments about the nature of our will (except where the Bible teaches about the subject), not from loose use of parables. (Or, for that matter, not from the loose use of Matt. 5:48 that I mistakenly committed last week. We all make mistakes--what's important is that we recognize our mistakes and try to improve.)
Separately, Steve asked a question about how or whether God causes sin. I skimmed it, and moved on. And then I came back to the thread later and found myself being accused of squirming out of answering it. It seemed to come out of the blue. Hence my "Eh?" reaction, and my perception that you were using charged rhetoric.
If my post had been replying to his question, as you thought, I guess I could understand your post better.
The question itself does pose a dilemma for Calvinists, and many Non-Calvinists would like to see how you would answer. If the question were posed under a new thread would you be willing to take a shot at answering it?
Well... There were two basic reasons I didn't respond to that question. 1.) I don't have a clear understanding of this general topic of the working of God's sovereignty. I'm not sure what to think, so I don't have a well-developed answer. 2.) Whether (or how) God ordains everything that occurs does not decide TULIP, as far as I'm concerned.
You're right that the question is valid. That is, if you're trying to understand the topic of God's sovereignty, that kind of question comes up. When God works in evil events, how is he working? In what sense, if at all, is he causing the sin? When God used the king of Assyria to judge Israel (Isaiah 10)--when God wielded him as an axe and then judged him for his evil--in what sense was God causing the king's evil actions? Was God just allowing the king to commit evil that was already in the king's heart? Did God in any way
place those evil desires in the king's heart? Was it only permissive, or did God do something active? Can all evil be understood as part of permissive ordaining? (I mean, God does have to
permit any evil that does occur. Is that ordaining/decreeing? How can an Arminian understand the topic?) Did the king's actions come from unrestrained human nature? Did God choose to make man with that nature? Does it come from Adam's fall? If so, did God decide he wanted Adam to fall? If so, did he tweak Adam's heart so that Adam would fall, or God accomplish it without that kind of direct action? How does all this interact with
James 1:13-14? How do we answer these questions from Scripture?
It's a complex topic, with a lot of room for various answers. And that's room for various answers, aside from what you conclude about how God saves sinners. I don't have it figured out. And my present acceptance of TULIP does not depend the details of the answers, nor does it depend on the vision of Calvinism revealed by Steve's question.
Unconditional election does not imply that God specifically decides how every event in history should occur. How God saves does not imply anything about how "God works all things". It doesn't even imply that God decreed that Adam would fall, whether permissively or actively. For me, the case for TULIP depends on the passages that discuss man's heart & the reasons for disbelief, God's election, the nature of what Christ did on the cross, God's drawing, and the warnings to persevere & discussions of falling away. You can't decide these issues by rejecting a particular understanding of how God's sovereignty works.
Sincere questions should be asked and worked through, but we have to think clearly about what the answers will decide.