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_Paidion
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Post by _Paidion » Sun Sep 16, 2007 8:06 pm

Catholic Steve:
I gave early Christian writing that actually used the words of Infant Baptism or the same rhetoric for Infant Baptism from Irenaeus (Against Heresies 2:22:4 [A.D. 180]) and onward. The text above Irenaeus is so huge in Christian Apologetics (not just Catholic) that it speaks beyond simply Infant Baptism, yet non-labeled Christians throw it out like a baby in the bath water.
Hmmmm.... let's see just how "huge" the text you quoted really is:

"He [Jesus] came to save all through himself; all, I say, who through him are reborn in God infants, and children, and youths, and old men. Therefore he passed through every age, becoming an infant for infants, sanctifying infants; a child for children, sanctifying those who are of that age . . . [so that] he might be the perfect teacher in all things, perfect not only in respect to the setting forth of truth, perfect also in respect to relative age" (Against Heresies 2:22:4 [A.D. 180]).

Tell us, Steve, where do you find "infant baptism" in this text? (or any other kind of baptism, for that matter). You infer it, I suppose because Irenaeus speaks of people of all ages being reborn in God, but your inference of it is not tantamount to Irenaeus teaching it.

You have require that your "non-labelled Christian friends" find words from Justin Martyr which speak against infant baptism by actually including the phrase "infant baptism":
I checked out some previous posts and could not find the resource/citation for Justin Martyr that you used so quickly. I am pretty sure which one you are talking about but I do not want to put words into your mouth. When you find it would you please underline/highlight the words INFANT BAPTISM and not just the word faith or belief?
Then use the same standard for yourself. Find any writing prior to 200 which support infant baptism and which use the phrase "INFANT BAPTISM". If your inference that Irenaeus did this is sufficient, then why is not the inference one of your "non-labelled Christian friends" concerning Justin Martyr also sufficient?
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Post by _Mort_Coyle » Sun Sep 16, 2007 8:54 pm

Hi CatholicSteve,
To all my non-labeled Christian Ad Hominem “purists”, can you see any “Ad Hominey” in post regarding me “…This is something which Catholic Steve has not had either the courage, honesty or where-with-all to admit”, or am I just “too sensitive”? I think I have been on this board fairly courageously and honestly unlike the where-with-all of others.
Once again, you seem to have completely misunderstand what the term "ad hominem attack" means in the context of a debate. To reiterate the explanations previously given to you, an "ad hominem attack" is a tactic whereby a debater responds to their opponent's points, not with lucid counterpoints, but with personal attacks, thereby being evasive.

You have consistently failed to answer basic questions put to you by myself, Homer and others. This has become a predictable pattern. When someone consistently stonewalls like this it is a clear indication that either they are afraid of facing challenges to their position, or they are not interested in honest dialog or they are simply not equipped to back up their arguments.
Wow (again). I gave early Christian writing that actually used the words of Infant Baptism or the same rhetoric for Infant Baptism from Irenaeus (Against Heresies 2:22:4 [A.D. 180]) and onward. The text above Irenaeus is so huge in Christian Apologetics (not just Catholic) that it speaks beyond simply Infant Baptism, yet non-labeled Christians throw it out like a baby in the bath water.
Let's revisit the earliest quotes from church fathers that you gave in support of infant baptism:

The Letter of Barnabas (74AD) - No mention of infant baptism
Hermas (80AD) - No mention of infant baptism
Ignatius of Antioch (110AD) - No mention of infant baptism
Irenaeus (180AD) - Has nothing to do with infant baptism. We'll come back to this in a moment.
Clement of Alexandria (191AD) - Has nothing to do with infant baptism
Hippolytus of Rome (215 AD) - Ah! Finally a text that actually has to do with the topic of infant baptism.
Therefore, my dear non-labeled Christian, you did not see the date of 180AD with Irenaeus which would satisfy your 200AD minimum or will you change that now?
Let's talk a bit more about your quote from Irenaeus. It seems like Irenaeus is a constant victim for having snippets of his work used out of context. The two most common cases are those who claim that Irenaeus thought that Jesus lived into his fifties and those who want to use Irenaeus in support of infant baptism. In both cases, the quotes used are lifted completely out of their theological context. The quote you gave is a prime example. It is part of Irenaeus' larger defense against particular gnostic teachings. At the heart of Irenaeus' theology is the concept of recapitulation. Rather than try to explain Irenaeus' recapitulation doctrine to you, I'll provide a couple of links which you can read if you wish:
http://www.vatican.va/holy_father/john_ ... 214en.html
http://www.tektonics.org/guest/irey50.html
To quote Everett Ferguson:
“The context of Irenaeus’ statement is his doctrine of recapitulation according to which Christ summed up all of humanity in himself. Involved in this conception for Irenaeus was the idea that Jesus passed through all the ages of life, sanctifying each. There is nothing specifically about baptism, but ‘born again’ makes one think of baptism. ‘Regeneration,’ a different word from what is used in the passage under consideration, regularly means baptism for Irenaeus” (Everett Ferguson: Early Christians Speak, p. 59).
? I checked out some previous posts and could not find the resource/citation for Justin Martyr that you used so quickly. I am pretty sure which one you are talking about but I do not want to put words into your mouth. When you find it would you please underline/highlight the words INFANT BAPTISM and not just the word faith or belief?
This is just the point. The following quote by Justin Martyr is often given by Catholic apologists in support of infant baptism:
"And many,both men and women, who have been Christ's disciples from childhood, remain pure and at the age of sixtey or seventy years..."
Justin Martyr,First Apology,15:61
Like many of the quotes you provided, it says nothing about infant baptism.
There is still a great deal of silence regarding Christian anti-Infant Baptism after 200AD. After 200AD this was a period of numerous writings on the doctrine in regular Christian worship and practice.
So can we take that as a tacit agreement on your part that Christian writings pre-200 (give or take) including scripture do not teach infant baptism?
"...where is the anti-Infant Baptism writings?
Besides the logical fallacy of your request, which I've repeatedly pointed out to you, the further away we get time-wise from Jesus and the Apostles, the less weight I give to church fathers. It's not that difficult to see a dramatic evolution in Christian doctrine in the first few centuries as the center of Christendom shifts from Jerusalem to Rome.

Although it is always useful to read the church fathers, sometimes the value is more in seeing where they went wrong than where they were right. Collectively, their writings provide excellent signposts of Catholicism's journey of deviation from original Christian teachings to a syncretic mixture of Christianity, paganism, Greek philosophy and Roman imperial power.

It strikes me as strange that you put so much weight on the writings of the early church fathers, when you think they might support Catholic doctrine, yet seem to ignore their un-Catholic teachings. Tertullian, for example, denied that Mary was a perpetual virgin.

Origen, because of some of his teachings, was declared anathema by a local council in Constantinople in 545, and then had 15 anathemas pronounced against him and his teachings at the Fifth Ecumenical Council (aka the Second Council of Constantinople) in 553. Here's a sample of the Council's edict:
If anyone does not anathematize Arius, Eunomius, Macedonius, Apollinaris, Nestorius, Eutyches and Origen, as well as their impious writings, as also all other heretics already condemned and anathematized by the Holy Catholic and Apostolic Church, and by the aforesaid four Holy Synods and [if anyone does not equally anathematize] all those who have held and hold or who in their impiety persist in holding to the end the same opinion as those heretics just mentioned: let him be anathema.
This makes me wonder, have you committed a sin by quoting Origen?

Personally, I've learned a lot from the early church fathers, but I don't need them to be infallible. It is actually in their fallibility that I learn a great deal.
As to the death of a baby prior to any baptism, my non-labeled Christian friend, did you read my posts?
Actually, no, I did not read your post prior to writing to Thomas. I was writing to Thomas, not to you.
Did you read the analogy that I related with Thomas & his son and the Christian & atheist? What do you have to loose?

No, I didn't. Hold on a second, let me go back and read what you have to say about the Christian and Atheist. I'll be right back...


...Ok, I read it. I see that you are essentially invoking a form of Pascal's Wager. The problem is, Pascal's Wager has been soundly refuted from a logical standpoint. The Atheist author Keith Augustine put it succinctly when we wrote:
In the seventeenth century the mathematician Blaise Pascal formulated his infamous pragmatic argument for belief in God in Pensées. The argument runs as follows:

If you erroneously believe in God, you lose nothing (assuming that death is the absolute end), whereas if you correctly believe in God, you gain everything (eternal bliss). But if you correctly disbelieve in God, you gain nothing (death ends all), whereas if you erroneously disbelieve in God, you lose everything (eternal damnation).

How should you bet? Regardless of any evidence for or against the existence of God, Pascal argued that failure to accept God's existence risks losing everything with no payoff on any count. The best bet, then, is to accept the existence of God. There have been several objections to the wager: that a person cannot simply will himself to believe something that is evidently false to him; that the wager would apply as much to belief in the wrong God as it would to disbelief in all gods, leaving the the believer in any particular god in the same situation as the atheist or agnostic; that God would not reward belief in him based solely on hedging one's bets; and so on.
This is the same flawed logic you attempted regarding baptism. The flaw in the argument that I find most egregious is that idea of wagering on God ("what do you have to lose?"). The God I know is not interested in empty forms and rituals. He is not the God of hedged bets. He is a consuming fire who desires relationship with us based on trust, not an insincere going through the motions of a ritual, "just in case". I'm not saying, by the way, that I think Thomas was insincere in his situation. I would have a hard time, though, loving and serving with my whole heart a God who would subject a baby to eternal torment just because they hadn't been sprinkled with some water. If I were counseling someone in the situation Thomas was in, rather than encourage them to "play it safe", I would stress to them the mercy, compassion, loving-kindness and fairness of God, as revealed in Christ Jesus.

I noticed, in that same post, you also wrote:
The non-labeled Christian’s position of infant death and no hell is slightly wrong from a Catholic Christian view because this is where Limbo comes from.
I'm not sure what you are trying to say here. However, Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger, who is now Pope Benedict XVI, said in an interview in 1984, "Limbo has never been a definitive truth of the faith... Personally, I would let it drop, since it has always been only a theological hypothesis." This equivocation seems to contradict centuries of Catholic teaching. For example, in 1905, Pope Pius X stated unequivocally, "Children who die without baptism go into limbo, where they do not enjoy God, but they do not suffer either." Both of these views contradict 1,000 years of Catholic teaching, going back at least to Augustine, that unbaptized infants go to Hell.
The earthly Catholic Christian Church simply does not know with certainty what happens with the scenario that he presented. We hope and pray that God is a merciful God, but no one really knows what happens.
I'm surprised at you CatholicSteve! The Catholic church doesn't know? Why, all you need to do is consult the early church fathers!
Go to Catholic Answers (http://www.catholic.com/) and pull up their resources and then cut/paste (with citations so we can keep you honest) what you find for all the forum readers. The site, Catholic Goldmine has even more sources that you can jump on.
I do occasionally visit these sites as well as occasionally listen to Catholic radio. More often than not I'm struck by the poor Biblical exegesis, the logical contortions that have to be made to try to support various Catholic teachings, and the sense that they still haven't gotten over the Reformation.
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Post by __id_1238 » Sun Sep 16, 2007 9:12 pm

Dear Non-labeled Christian,

Debate? I thought the constant bullet point was this site was for discussions and dialogue, never a debate. I used to judge debates, something where two opposing parties have one topic and have a time limit to express and then counter-express their views. In competition, winners are picked and on FOX TV the rating simply go up.

This has never been a debate. Pull your thoughts together into a tighter fashion. Too many quotes and then your thoughts on that. You seem to "shotgun" around too much.

But, I wait for those early Christian critiques, though.

Peace, Catholic Steve
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Post by _Mort_Coyle » Sun Sep 16, 2007 9:26 pm

I would certainly prefer friendly dialog and discussion but, sadly, this has devolved into a debate, given the confrontational nature of your posts and your refusal to interact on substantive issues.

Speaking of which, is your last post all you have to offer in response? Are you not going to answer any of the questions or address any of the points raised?
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Post by __id_1238 » Mon Sep 17, 2007 12:12 am

Dear Forum Readers,

So much for courage. Get a little ruffled under the feathers and some people close up shop and go home. I must admit about about my non-labeled Christian friend, the circular arguments that he goes through are coming back in my writings, too. I ask, he declines. He asks, I ask for my answer first…big ol’circle.

Some non-labeled Christians argue as if there is some logic that because there appears to be no doctrinal disagreement, that therefore, there would be no doctrinal writings by these early Christians on a subject that was basically a vacuum, ie, Infant Baptism. Hog Wash, or Hog Wart if you’re some movie fan, because there are all sorts of writings supporting the doctrine of Infant Baptism after 200AD. This being said, then there should be all sorts of Christians Apologists writing against such a doctrine. Get it for Pete’s sake. Don’t give this circular mumbo jumbo talk. It appears that non-Christians lived only up until 200AD because they will give early Christian writings credibility until 200AD….everything after that was theological garbage, right?

As for finding Irenaeus not using the statement “Infant Baptism”, does the inference count with nearly the same verbiage using “…sanctifying infants”. It appears that this is not strong enough for you so then a I apologize, but to sanctify is to “to free from sin, purify” (Webster’s). Now, we can go into another arena as to whether or not Baptism saves (sin removal)? Catholics believe that Baptism does so, Protestants not so.

You state “…Origen, because of some of his teachings, was declared anathema by a local council in Constantinople in 545, and then had 15 anathemas pronounced against him and his teachings at the Fifth Ecumenical Council (aka the Second Council of Constantinople) in 553.” Excellent, while you are there are you going to bring up Tertullian, too? I have a better position thought with the logic you use above to throw out Origen’s comments/writings of 244AD. By the way, how come you use these councils as a defense but when these very councils also support Infant Baptism you decline their position?

OK, he was declared “anathema” (banned, excommunicated, outside the Church) in 545AD. Does that negate his writings while still part of the Church? “..because of some of his writings ” …which ones? He was contested for Allegorism in the interpretation of Scripture, Subordination of the Divine and Persons The theory of successive trials and a final restoration. Since you are so good at these early writings (late, may I add), then please quote the writings about Infant Baptism that he was declared anathema for?

Judas was an original Apostle chosen by Jesus. Were his works, preaching and study before he turned against Jesus completely negated, or did they have value? I would hope you would say “value”, ie, Origen had value as well.

As for Thomas and his son. Your admission (not reading it) speaks volumes as to what/how you read these posts. You really do not read all of them before you speak … “oh excuse me let me go back…OK, blah blah blah….”. Can you speak for yourself? The analogy (Pascal’s wager: The wager states that it is a better "bet" to believe that God exists than not to believe, because the expected value of believing is always greater than the expected value of not believing.) of the Christian and atheist is well known and great. You belittle this great conundrum for the atheist by trying to side-step the point by saying God does not want empty rituals. The man who prays to understand God will ultimately fall into believing God. The man who brings his child to God (via Baptism) admitting that he knows not for certainty whether it is scriptural or not will never be condemned. You are condemning yourself, not God. Of course, at times you sound like you think you are God.

There are many rituals in protestant churches today that fall under that definition. Unfortunately, you are a non-labeled Christian going to a home fellowship church that does not publish or spread their belief system. Therefore, it is nearly impossible to see what empty rituals you perform. Yes, if God finds this foolish and empty He will tell you so when you get to Heaven, but if not you have lost nothing. I think you are more interested in impressing yourself or those around you.

Some of you find the need to use a standard of “Infant Baptism” word for word necessary. Those specific words can not be found until later in the early writings, sorry to disappoint you. Because you can not find the specific words “Trinity” does that stop you from believing that this doctrine is in the earliest writings? What about the specific age of reason/discernment to be able to accept Jesus Christ as Lord and Savior? Where is that? That is no where in scripture. It is no where in the earliest of any Christian writings but you will believe it to your dying breath. Therefore, if you are able to use such scriptural inferences about such doctrine then can we infer the same from scripture about Infant Baptism? Are non-labeled Christians the only ones allowed to infer from scripture?

Does the Bible ever say that infants or young children can be baptized? The indications are clear. In the New Testament we read that Lydia was converted by Paul’s preaching and that "She was baptized, with her household" (Acts 16:15). The Philippian jailer whom Paul and Silas had converted to the faith was baptized that night along with his household. We are told that "the same hour of the night . . . he was baptized, with all his family" (Acts 16:33). And in his greetings to the Corinthians, Paul recalled that, "I did baptize also the household of Stephanas" (1 Cor. 1:16).

In all these cases, whole households or families were baptized. This means more than just the spouse; the children too were included. ….I know, I know, this is a stretch, a real scriptural inference, but heck let’s run with it, OK? If the text of Acts referred simply to the Philippian jailer and his wife, then we would read that "he and his wife were baptized," but we do not. Thus his children must have been baptized as well. The same applies to the other cases of household baptism in Scripture.

Granted, we do not know the exact age of the children; they may have been past the age of reason, rather than infants. Then again, they could have been babes in arms. More probably, there were both younger and older children. Certainly there were children younger than the age of reason/discernment in some of the households that were baptized, especially if one considers that society at this time had no reliable form of birth control. Furthermore, given the New Testament pattern of household baptism, if there were to be exceptions to this rule (such as infants), they would be explicit.

Granted still, there are many non-labeled Christians on this site that do not and will not succumb to the interpretation above. To do so would mean they succumb to infant Baptism and they would rather die then admit that. As for your leaving the site, that is fine, I enjoy the forum just as well without you.

Peace out, Catholic Steve
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Post by _Thomas » Mon Sep 17, 2007 5:55 am

Mort:
The Hebraic view of man is that we are a unified being with an unseen part (sometimes referred to as "spirit") and a seen part (sometimes referred to as "flesh").
Perhaps in using the word "soul" I was inexact , I was referring to that part of man that is spiritual. Yet I cannot see that this spiritual aspect being connected to the intellect. Were that so , a person could be converted as due to intellectual argument alone. Or conversely , as the Bolsheviks tried , that Christianity could be defeated through education. But such is not the case.

I believe that Grace is the action that instills faith , and that faith is an act of God. Grace comes from hearing the Word of God , but hearing by the mind alone is not enough. Rather it is the Grace that instills faith that enables the belief. Unbelievers can , and do , read the Bible but , as they resist this Grace , they are incapable of belief. From what I have seen , this resistance is intellectual and or emotional.

Likewise , because baptism imparts the Holy Spirit to an individual , an act of Grace that instills faith , it is something apart from the intellect. It is however , this faith , acting on the intellect as the child develops , that generates belief and salvation. But how much faith is saving faith , only God knows. I suspect it is very little.
Faith, as it is generally used in scripture, is indicated by one's actions. This is also consistent with Hebraic thought (see James 2:18). These actions are, of course, preceded by the intellectual exercise of making a determination to act.
But the action and the faith are not the same. A believer and an unbeliever may do the exact same thing as an intellectual exercise , and yet the act of the unbeliever is worthless because he has no faith. Faith certainly does act upon the intellect but it is not , itself intellectual.
I should also clarify my position regarding baptism as it relates to salvation. I believe in Universal Reconciliation; that is, I believe that the salvation of all of mankind was accomplished by Jesus. As such, there is no act, be it baptism, saying the sinner's prayer, or whatever, which can add to what He has already done.
I agree.

I know that I believe. I know at what point in time I believed. But I cannot explain why or how I believe. There was never an act of acceptance or decision , it just happened. It was done to me not by me.

Thomas.
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Post by _Thomas » Mon Sep 17, 2007 7:27 am

As I see it , the N.T. contains the material for a worked out doctrine but not the doctrine itself. It is a mistake to think that the Apostolic Church had a completely thought out or articulated doctrine. This doctrine has been worked out over time as a result of controversial attack both from without and within the Church.As such , the Church Fathers can only indicate the state of the Church at the time of it's writing. It represents the doctrine as it is been worked out.

At the same time IMHO a mistake to attempt to return to what we conceive of as the Apostolic Church and throw away the hard won lessons of the past.In doing so the it allows the old heresies to once again return. The Church is again engaged with the Judaizers , Arians , Gnostics , etc. which once buried are arrising again within the Church. Old battles are being re fought.

It would seem to me that the Holy Spirit was given not only as a help to the individual but as an overseer and guide to the Church itself. The belief in the veracity of the ancient creeds is not because they were adopted as acts of men , but rather were written under the guiding hand of the Holy Spirit. The belief that the Church , being Catholic , between the years 500 and 1500 , was apostate and led Christians astray , would be saying that the gates of Hell did indeed prevail for a thousand years.

I would , of course , say that the reformation was a part of this working out process. The Church is in the hands of the Holy Spirit and not the established priesthood. Yet tradition , while not an authority , can not be ignored. When neither the Bible not the Church Fathers can definitely inform doctrine , as in the case of baptism , I feel safe in using tradition as a determining factor.

Thomas
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Post by _Homer » Mon Sep 17, 2007 10:46 am

CatholicSteve wrote:
Does the Bible ever say that infants or young children can be baptized? The indications are clear. In the New Testament we read that Lydia was converted by Paul’s preaching and that "She was baptized, with her household" (Acts 16:15).
Actually Lydia only had two sons in her household. One son was 23 years old and was a carpenter. The other son was 21 years old and was a fisherman. Neither son was married, thus Lydia had no grandchildren. My authority for this information is equal to (actually the same as) those who use "household baptisms" as support for infant baptism - I made it up! :wink:

There is a real problem with infant baptism. Those baptized as infants are robbed of their biblical commitment to Christ. As the 19th century preacher Benjamin Franklin commented:
Baptism is the test of his belief on Christ—the trial of his loyalty to the King. Here, at the entrance of the kingdom, the question comes before him of in a matter of the most trying nature—obedience to a command where he can see no reason for the obedience, only that the King requires it. If he stops at this first formal act required of him, and refuses to obey, what may we expect of him at any subsequent time? If the very appointment intended to test his loyalty, try his faith, and develop the spirit of obedience in him, shall be set aside by him, what ground have we for expecting obedience of him in the future?
That which is commanded of the person who would become a follower of the Messiah has been obeyed for them by another.

So many errors! Baptism without faith. Guilt for the sin of Adam. No forgiveness for sins commited after baptism, so delay baptism as long as you can. Immersion (baptizo) by sprinkling. The list goes on, one error leading to another.
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Post by _Thomas » Mon Sep 17, 2007 2:40 pm

Homer:

So therefore we save ourselves and Christ is merely waiting at the door so that we may make the commitment?

Thomas
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Post by _Homer » Mon Sep 17, 2007 3:55 pm

To those who practice infant baptism, what does the following statement by Peter mean?


1 Peter 3:21
21. Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you--not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience--through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,


Who is making the appeal? The person being baptized? A believing parent for an infant? If the latter, could a believer make the appeal for the child of unbelieving parents? If not, why not? What scripture commands the one and forbids the other?
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