Hi John,
I realize that the points I raised above are difficult (possibly impossible) to answer, so I can't fault you for not answering them, and you did at least interact a little with one of them. However, as the points I made are the very ones upon which the disputed matter rests, if they cannot be answered, and they are, instead, ignored, I think it a better use of time for me to respond to other inquiries elsewhere.
In case it is a blind-spot on your part, however, and you wonder why I think you have entirely skirted my challenges, I will one more time repeat the areas where I think you need to shore-up your case, if you hope for biblical Christians to take it seriously.
First, you approach the matter as a pragmatist, and I approach it as a follower of scripture. A pragmatist says, "Whatever works best, is best." Your argument against the biblical view of marriage is about 95% dependant upon your claims that egalitarian marriages are happier, more stable and more permanent (all of which is very open to dispute). But, as I have said, this tells us nothing about God's design. Aboriginal tribal chiefs with sixteen wives might be found to enjoy divorce-free, marital bliss, but this would not be admissible as evidence in any attempt to discover biblical norms.
I asked four questions at the end of my previous post. It seems that you intended to deal somewhat with the first, but the other three were left untouched. I repeat them here:
1. Does the Bible, or does it not, repeatedly exhort wives to submit to their husbands as unto Christ?
2. Does the Bible teach that for one person to be subordinate to another in any relationship must normally result in unhappiness?
3. Does the Bible restrict women from certain church activities that men can do (e.g., pastoral ministry over men), and encourage women in activities that men cannot do (e.g., childbearing)? If so, can we think that the Bible interprets the woman's equality with the man as "interchangability"?
4. Does the Bible teach that all people should be pleased to serve others, and that those who do so are the greatest in the kingdom? If so, then what can be found objectionable about being assigned a subordinate role in some relationships?
Your treatment of the word "submission," was not up to the standards of scholarly inquiry that a discussion of this sort requires, for the following reasons:
1. You cite, almost exclusively, feminist scholars in the context of their arguing a case for egalitarianism, rather than lexicons that simply give the regular usage of Greek words, without a theological ax to grind. This applies not only to the meaning of the Greek words in general, but also to their interpretation of Chrysostom and patristic authorities in general. Since you almost certainly pulled the quotes of Cyril, Theodore and Chrysostom from feminist literature, which gave the scholars' spin on their meaning, you failed to notice that the first two quotes do not provide any evidence that Cyril or Theodore were using "kephale" to mean "source." Since the egalitarian scholars, who cite them, are telling you that they meant "source," it makes sense to you. Let me suggest a mental experiment: Read the same quotes with the assumption that "head" means "leader" instead of "source." It makes just as much sense in the passage, and it agrees with the universal usage in the times of the New Testament (all of the fathers quoted lived in the fourth and fifth centuries, so, even if they did use kephale as source, it would not reflect New Testament usage).
I would like for you to see the quote from Chrysostom in its own context, rather than the context of a feminist argument. Ms. Kroeger is a dishonest feminist idealogue, as anyone can discover by reading her work. Wayne Grudem answers her very thoroughly concerning this Chrysostom quote and presents the actual quote in its context. It is very clear that Chrysostom, like the other fathers, understood kephale to mean leader or ruler. Grudem demonstrates (though anyone could tell from reading Chrysostom's words without Grudem's comments) that Kroeger is deliberately misquoting and engaging in the scholarly equivalent of "yellow journalism." You can find Grudem's answer at the following site:
http://www.biblicalstudies.org.uk/pdf/kephale.pdf
You yourself admit that Cyril, Theodore and Chrysostom were not egalitarians, so it seems disingenuous to interpret their remarks in an egalitarian way that does not agree with their known convictions.
2. You say that "hupotasso" ("submit") has two uses: military and non-military. The lexical sources (not authors arguing a position) available to me indicate that the military use is the primary use, and that the word means "to rank under." Any suggestion that a particular instance of the word (e.g. Eph.5:22) does not stem from the original military usage, and carry the idea of subordination, is 100% speculative. I would like to see one instance in the New Testament where the word hupotasso, in context, can be convincingly argued to be lacking in this hierarchical association.
You have naively followed the heretical feminists in saying that Christ is not subject to His Father. This wild expedient is the only way for egalitarians to salvage the view that the wife is not subject to her husband, given the unmistakable biblical parallels between these two paradigms (e.g. 1 Cor.11:3/Eph.5:22-23). However, the eternal subjection of the Son to the Father is one of the most strongly declared (and historically affirmed) features of a biblical christology (e.g., 1 Cor.15:27-28/John 5:19-20, etc.).
What is interesting about your argument is that it ignores the very relationship of Christ to the Father as being a Father/Son relationship! If we now wish to suggest that sons are not subordinate to their fathers, we are fully set-up to destroy the last vestige of biblical family structure from our culture. The feminists' resistance to the idea that Jesus is subject (in submission) to His Father arises from recognizing the equality of the Father and the Son, and failing to understand (as feminists invariably fail to understand) that persons of equal value can be in a hierarchical relationship with one another.
3. You cite paraphristic versions of the Bible (e.g. "The Message" [gag!]) to show that some (feministic) translators are willing to substitute for the word "submit" other words, which are less offensive to the feministic mood of the Bible-purchasing public. The one lexicon you cite (Thayers) does not suggest that hupotasso exists in the absence of hierarchical relationships. Thayers gives, as one meaning among others, "a voluntary attitude of giving in, cooperating, assuming responsibility, and carrying a burden." All of these words work well within or without a hierarchical structure, but we know of no case where the word is definitely used in a context that does not include hierarchical structure.
Also, the qualifier "voluntary" does not exclude the element of duty. All of our obedience to God is, in fact, voluntary. But it is also mandatory. We voluntarily decide to obey God's mandates, or to disobey them. But the two options are not equally acceptable. The word hupotasso definitely does not include a voluntary element in Luke 10:17 and 20, where the demons' submission to the name of Jesus is spoken of. In a great number of cases in the Bible, hupotasso carries the idea of involuntary, forced subjection (see, especially, Rom.8:20), though I would agree with you that the submission of the wife to the husband is expected to be voluntary and not forced, as is true of all Christian obedience.
4. You say that the word hupotasso is not found in Ephesians 5:22 (it is in my Greek New Testament. Perhaps some manuscripts omit it), but that this verse has no verb and is merely a continuation of the sentence in the previous verse, so that the two verses would be read together as "Submitting to one another in the fear of God; wives, unto your own husbands as unto the Lord..." You apparently have not noticed that, where there is no verb in v.22, it must be implying the only verb found earlier in the sentence (in v.21), which is "submitting." So what is gained by omitting the verb in v.22? With or without it, the statement still unambiguously requires the wife to submit to her husband.
You make the following assertions about Eph.5:21. I suggest that none of them is demonstrably true, and some are quite demonstrably untrue. You wrote:
a) submission represents a horizontal interaction (this is not obvious, and seems to ignore the regular meaning of the word in the New Testament and the lexicons. Why should we believe this?)
b) submitting is not a command (I guess this raises the question of why so many people, including wives, are commanded by scripture to do it?)
c) submission is impossible without the filling of the Holy Spirit (this is not stated in scripture, and many non-christians, who lack the Spirit of God have been known to submit to authorities)
d) "This means that submission applies to both husbands and wives equally (Eph. 5:22);" (if this is true, as it is nowhere stated, then you certainly cite the wrong reference to prove the point!)
e) "submission is not something you do but is something you receive;" (again, we must then wonder why the Bible so often tells people to do it)
f) "It is not an action to be attained but an attitude of the heart to be maintained" (I seriously doubt that it is merely one or the other. Ideally, it is both; functionally it is indeed the former).
5. You wrote: "We should also remember the culture and law of that day gave men supreme control of their entire household. Women had no rights and were under the authority of either their father or their husband."
In a less extreme version, this statement may be held to be true (1 Cor.14:34), but who gave the Jews this law? Was it not God?
Before we decide that this "cultural reality" is inferior to our modern, feminist "cultural reality", we might ask ourselves who was the author of ours? That the "woman's movement" arose from very anti-Christian origins, and has always been intimately aligned with lesbianism, with goddess-worship, and with the advocacy of no-fault divorce and abortion on demand, can be discovered by reading any accurate history of the movement. It is interesting that no Christian "scholars" ever found this in the Bible until they had imbibed its spirit from the modern culture. Once you have done this, you can prove anything you wish from misapplied and mistranslated biblical texts.
You wrote: "Dr. Clinebell notes that in our educational process children need to be raised free of sexism. This should be a goal for all churches as well."
I agree completely. But I would add that children should also be raised free from other ungodly philosophies and attitudes, like feminism. I doubt that you would agree with me on this.
You also wrote: "Developing healthy relationships is dependent on having a proper attitude and respect for members of the opposite sex."
How true! And where, better than scripture, can we discover what the most proper attitudes and respect toward the sexes are to be? Traditionalists are not required, nor even permitted, to disrespect women. No doubt some do, just as some non-traditionalists do--but this is not advocated as a part of the biblical view of marriage. The wife is to be "honored" as "the weaker vessel" (1 Peter 3:7), as well as "nourished" and "cherished" (Eph.5:28-29)
It is the feminists who continually show disrespect in their characterization of one of the genders--namely, the straw "man," who is a power-hungry, control freak and abuses his wife. Some men (and some women) fit this description. But such a man is not the Christian that the Bible describes as normative, nor have I known many Christian men who could, by any stretch of the imagination, be accurately described thus.
The observation that the Greek word for the wife's management of the home makes her to be the "house-despot" does not in any sense suggest that she carries out this responsibility in defiance of the authorities that God has placed in her life. No "despot" is entirely lacking in having authorities over him or her, in that he/she is at the very least subject to the authority of God and anyone else that God places in authority over him/her. It is interesting that, in making this point about the woman being "house-despot," no feminist seems to think that giving the woman unrestrained authority would result in abuse of power, but they all assume that giving the husband any authority over the wife must necessarily result in abuse!
Whenever a man (like yourself) assumes that a man given charge of his family will surely abuse, I can't help wondering if I am listening to a man who is exposing what he sees in his own character, and who (like Sigmund Freud) believes that every man is as corrupt as he knows himself to be. Why else would he entertain such libelous thoughts about Christian men?
You also wrote: "Churches can implement educational and participatory opportunities where members are able to develop free from class, gender, or racial prejudices."
I agree again. But I believe that everything you have advocated here has arisen from your gender prejudices. That is, you come to the table with a set of (feminist) assumptions that obviously "prejudice" your judgment and render you incapable of assessing the actual evidence objectively. I may be wrong, but it is certainly the impression that your argument conveys.
As you can see, I am committed to interacting with your actual statements, not merely with an imaginary straw man that I could use to represent feminists generally. I would request the same respect to be shown to me. I would urge you to respond to what you know me to believe (which can be found in my actual statements), rather than with some caricature of the chauvenistic "traditionalist." I also would request that you use the scriptures as your primary authority. You don't have to accommodate this request, of course, but it is the only way that I can justify my continuing participation in this discussion.
Your motto is "Christianity is not a belief system, but a living dynamic of Christ." I could agree with you, if you had said, "Christianity is not ONLY a belief system, but..." However, you appear to take this quite absolutely, and you argue as if Christianity does not require us to believe anything in particular (except for a belief in egalitarianism, apparently). You may freely decline to believe what the Bible says, if this is your preference. However, do not fault other Christians, who actually think that the Bible was written to be believed and obeyed by God's people.
Blessings!