"TULIP" . . . Universalist Style

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_Homer
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Post by _Homer » Tue Nov 27, 2007 11:40 pm

Steve wrote:
If Universalism is true, then every man will receive as much punishment as is appropriate to his condition—but no one will suffer eternally.
Steve wrote this in the context of persons being punished proportional to their crimes (sins). As I understand the Universalist position, there is no punishment for the purpose of retribution in their system. All punishment is solely for the purpose of "correction".

If this is so, what certainty is there that the moral atheist or agnostic will not be more recalcitrant than a Hitler or Stalin? What scriptural proof is there that there is a correlation between the degree (or amount or number) of sin committed in this life and the amount of "correction" required to bring about repentance in the next? And once they are "corrected" and repent, are they punished any longer, since thay are "saved just like us"?

Quite often in this life the one who has sinned greatly is more readily converted than the moral unbeliever.

It will not do to cite texts where God chastens His children in this life; they are inapplicable to the case. We are talking about His enemies.

I am asking for a response from any of the CUs; Steve does not claim to be able to answer for you.

Thanks and blessings.
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Post by _Mort_Coyle » Wed Nov 28, 2007 1:29 am

Steve wrote this in the context of persons being punished proportional to their crimes (sins). As I understand the Universalist position, there is no punishment for the purpose of retribution in their system. All punishment is solely for the purpose of "correction".
Ultimately, it is for the purpose of restoration.
If this is so, what certainty is there that the moral atheist or agnostic will not be more recalcitrant than a Hitler or Stalin?
I would say there is no certainty. Perhaps the difference between Hitler and a great many other people is that Hitler was in a position that enabled him to act upon what was in his heart. How many other potential despots have there been who, fortunately, never amassed any power outside of their own household? Maybe some are even those who present themselves, not as atheists or agnostics, but as Christians.
What scriptural proof is there that there is a correlation between the degree (or amount or number) of sin committed in this life and the amount of "correction" required to bring about repentance in the next?
I don't agree with the premise. I don't believe that "sin" is purely a matter of action (or even intent). I believe that we are so immersed in sin and so mixed in our motives that even when we try to do good it is still tainted. Calvin called this "total depravity". Not that we are totally depraved, but that there is nothing in us that is free from some element of depravity.
And once they are "corrected" and repent, are they punished any longer, since thay are "saved just like us"?
I don't see it so much as a juridical or transactional scenario, where X amount of punishment is prescribed based on X amount of sin. Rather, I see it as a relational scenario, where one is faced with who God and Christ really are (is?) and, in the light of that, one is faced with one's own miserable condition. The sin, and it's effects, are "burned" away, because they cannot remain in the presence of God. For some, there may be little left.

One of my favorite quotes from C.S. Lewis comes to mind:
"People often think of Christian morality as a kind of bargain in which God says, 'If you keep a lot of rules, I'll reward you, and if you don't I'll do the other thing.' I do not think that is the best way of looking at it. I would much rather say that every time you make a choice you are turning the central part of you, the part of you that chooses, into something a little different from what it was before. And taking your life as a whole, with all your innumerable choices, all your life long you are slowly turning this central thing into a Heavenly creature or into a hellish creature: either into a creature that is in harmony with God, and with other creatures, and with itself, or else into one that is in a state of war and hatred with God, and with its fellow creatures, and with itself. To be the one kind of creature is Heaven: that is, it is joy, and peace, and knowledge, and power. To be the other means madness, horror, idiocy, rage, impotence, and eternal loneliness. Each of us at each moment is progressing to the one state or the other."
Where I differ from Lewis is in the belief that even at its hellish worst, the human soul is not beyond God's ability to save it, though the more twisted by sin, the more extreme that process might be. Lewis famously said "The doors of Hell are locked from the inside." I find in that statement a gross underestimation of God's omnipotence and omnipresence and relentless love.
Quite often in this life the one who has sinned greatly is more readily converted than the moral unbeliever.
So very true.
It will not do to cite texts where God chastens His children in this life; they are inapplicable to the case. We are talking about His enemies.
Yes, His enemies. "And such were some of you." What is God's attitude towards His enemies, as displayed in Jesus? "But I say to you who hear, love your enemies, do good to those who hate you..."; "Father forgive them, for they don't know what they're doing."; "For if while we were enemies we were reconciled to God through the death of His Son, much more, having been reconciled, we shall be saved by His life."; "For it was the Father's good pleasure for all the fullness to dwell in Him, and through Him to reconcile all things to Himself, having made peace through the blood of His cross; through Him, I say, whether things on earth or things in heaven."
I am asking for a response from any of the CUs; Steve does not claim to be able to answer for you.
Though I commend him for doing a very good job so far, because he seems to strive for fairness and accuracy. Although he is not a Universalist, I would feel comfortable having Steve explain what Christian Universalists believe. I cannot say the same about Rick, Bob or yourself.
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Post by _Homer » Wed Nov 28, 2007 10:27 am

Although he is not a Universalist, I would feel comfortable having Steve explain what Christian Universalists believe. I cannot say the same about Rick, Bob or yourself.
Me neither! That's why I ask the questions. :lol:
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Post by _Paidion » Wed Nov 28, 2007 10:40 am

Homer wrote:And once they are "corrected" and repent, are they punished any longer, since thay are "saved just like us"?
This is an excellent question which deserves an answer, but the answer cannot be found in the Bible.

Origen may have believed they were not punished any longer:

Little by little and individually the correction and purification will be accomplished. Some will lead the way and climb to the heights with swifter progress, others following right behind them; yet others will be far behind. Thus multitudes of individuals and countless orders, who once were enemies, will advance and reconcile themselves to God; and so at length the last enemy will be reached. De Principiis, III.vi.6

I realize this quote doesn't state that the punishment will cease when they have been reconciled to God, but one wonders, if Origen were right, why it should continue after they have been corrected.

On the other hand, here in this life, we still suffer the results of the fall after we have been regenerated. We aren't transported immediately into the presence of God.

It seems we cannot find in Scripture the answer to this question. We can only speculate. As for myself, I would like to think the punishment will cease as soon as each person is reconciled. But it may be that all will have to endure the discomforts of Gehenna until all have been reconciled.
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Post by _Rick_C » Wed Nov 28, 2007 1:25 pm

Greetings,

I just amended (edited) "T" for clarity. Sorry about that: I had too much in it, really, imo.

Steve,
I especially apologize to you because you replied to the first T (and the rest of the TULIP). It was your reply that made me realize the T said too much. I hope the new version makes more sense. I tried to get it 'right to the point' this time. At any rate, I'll be working on a reply to you. Rather than specifically replying to your-T-reply I might just elaborate on it more, taking what you said into account, etc.

Todd,
In one of my posts I said something like, "I realize there are differences among universalists." I know your views are different from the other universalists who post here on certain things.
I saw here you wrote:Calvinism says that each person is predestined by God to be in one group or the other with no choice in the matter at all. This is not true for CU, CI, or eternal torment. Trying to align CU with Calvinism is way off base IMO. All four views have two groups, but only Calvinism says it is predetermined which group one will be in.

All four views also say that each of the two groups are predestined to an ultimate fate as Steve points out for CU. CU is no more a "predestination doctrine" than CI or eternal torment is.
Briefly.
All people who believe in the Bible believe in predestination. But they have differences on what it means, e.g., Calvinists and Arminians, etc. The TULIP I've presented is a summary of what I think universalists believe and/or is basically compatible with it (though I find contradtions in it which I will post about more later).

Not to belabor the point, but universalists believe [for sure] that God will "save" all humans. Thomas Talbott and others see it in the same sense Calvinists do as in a "decree" or something that definitely WILL happen. Talbott may call this this "predestination", linking it to what the Bible says about it...or he might "skip" what the Bible says about it, I don't know (I may get his book if my library can get it for me...I won't give him any money! :wink: ). Anyway. However he thinks about it, he believes it is in the divine will to accomplish the "salvation" of all, according to how he and other universalists define "salvation". You believe this is in the divine will too, Todd, regardless of what you call it. I'm not really asking you to say what you call it but just wanted to make this point....

I've read articles that say and/or have 'accused' some open theists (like Clark Pinnock) of being universalists. However we want to look at this, or in what way (or ways) the universalists who post here see it; it seems VERY clear to me that universalists surely believe all will be "saved". If some take an open theist view on it, they may or may not call it "predestination" or identify it with biblical predestination (the verses and sections of the Bible that actually speak about it).

Bob mentioned that universalism's sure belief that all will be "saved" reminded him of Calvinism. It does me too. But universalism's "salvation of all who ever lived" makes Calvinism's Irresistable Grace look like mere wishful thinking!

Thanks, :)
Rick
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Re: "TULIP" . . . Universalist Style

Post by _Father_of_five » Wed Nov 28, 2007 1:48 pm

Rick_C wrote:I think that, probably, the most important thing the above reveals is universalism's non-biblical doctrine of "salvation out of Hell" as the Bible is completely silent about postmortem salvation of any kind. Christians (we who believe today) are saved how the Bible says people are and can be saved which, I believe, is the only salvation there is.
This statement reveals a difference in understanding of what 'salvation' is. Maybe we should spend some time discussing Biblical salvation. I think Paidion is right that we should be calling it Universal Reconciliation (UR) rather than Universal Salvation.

My understanding of salvation is: To be delivered from sin and its detrimental consequences. By this definition the Christian Universalist would say that the disobedient are not saved and they will suffer the appropriate punishment as determined by the Lord, but ulitmately reconciled in the end.

As far as being "saved from Hell," it is my belief that many of the living are already in Hell. I believe that is what Paul was saying in the following in Romans Chapter 1.

God gives them over
...to uncleanness (v24)
...to vile passions (v26)
...to a debased mind (v28 )

...and they received in themselves the due penalty for their error (v27)

With this in mind, if these are already in 'hell' then of course people are saved out of hell everyday.

Just offering a little different perspective.

Todd
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Post by _STEVE7150 » Wed Nov 28, 2007 2:23 pm

Steve wrote this in the context of persons being punished proportional to their crimes (sins). As I understand the Universalist position, there is no punishment for the purpose of retribution in their system. All punishment is solely for the purpose of "correction".

If this is so, what certainty is there that the moral atheist or agnostic will not be more recalcitrant than a Hitler or Stalin? What scriptural proof is there that there is a correlation between the degree (or amount or number) of sin committed in this life and the amount of "correction" required to bring about repentance in the next? And once they are "corrected" and repent, are they punished any longer, since thay are "saved just like us"?




God did say "vengence is mine" therefore as Paul said "God will not be mocked we will reap what we sow" and "many stripes less stripes", "eye for eye", "more tolerable less tolerable."
It sounds to me that God will execute justice and if that includes punishment proportional to the evil done then true justice will be done IMO.
The merciful part comes in after this payment for evil is finished when the sinner can hopefully be restored to God.
Anyway that seems consistent with justice and mercy which is a big part of God's character IMO.
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Post by _Rick_C » Wed Nov 28, 2007 4:14 pm

This is a reply to part of what Steve wrote but is to all.
I'll quote Steve entirely for context.

Steve, et al,
I wrote:Limited Salvations:
(TWO different and separated salvations, premortem and postmortem)
One, Limited to: only those who experience salvation through believing before they die. Happens only before the return of Christ.
Two, Limited to: only those who experience "postmortem 'salvation out of Hell' after they die". Happens only after the return of Christ.

Steve replied:
While "salvation out of hell" may be said to be absent from scripture, one could equally say that the word "hell" is absent from scripture (that is, from the Greek and Hebrew, where no single word seems to answer to our concept of "hell"). If we follow the biblical writers in commonly replacing the word "hell" with some equivalent, like "punishment" or "condemnation" or some such, then it might be possible, without violence to biblical logic, to postulate a salvation, not "out of hell," but a salvation "through judgment" or "through fire" (e.g. 1 Cor.3:15, where the term is used, but not of the unbelievers).
When I used the word "hell" I was using it as it is commonly known and understood. While it is true that there are misconceptions about what "hell" is and certain words like "gehenna" could be talked about separately (and we could conceivably get to it); for the purposes of general discussion/debate I feel the word "hell" by itself can and should be used. If we were to go into technical points on what the various words that have been translated as "hell" specifically mean in their contexts it would take some time to get to a general discussion.

In your lectures you talk about people going to hell. That general definition is what most people understand. "Hell" is understood as where people go if they don't go to heaven; a place of judgment for their sins and being not with God.

It wouldn't be impossible to post stuff like "If you don't become a Christian you will be condemned to go to a place of judgment and punishment that is described as a place that has fire and other terrible things in it" or we could post "If you don't become a Christian you will go to hell." I think we should use this simple definition on the thread (or we could have, like, 10 threads first on every single meaning of each original word in context)....

That being my vote; why I wrote "salvation out of hell" was because those who will go there will be in it. They won't be in heaven or in the New Heavens and New Earth should the Lord come back first. From my vantage point, and others who hold to 'conventional' soteriology (the teachings about what it means to be saved);
a "salvation through hell" is unbiblical. This is precisely why I wrote universalists believe in:

Limited Salvations:
(TWO different and separated salvations, premortem and postmortem)
One, Limited to: only those who experience salvation through believing before they die. Happens only before the return of Christ.
Two, Limited to: only those who experience "postmortem 'salvation out of Hell' after they die". Happens only after the return of Christ.

The underlined isn't biblical, imo. While it could be theoretically true, what we have in the Bible doesn't teach it: The Bible's soteriology is "One" (above) with only one salvation.

So, universalists believe in things that aren't in the Bible. On other threads and in universalist writings it is often argued, "Though no one in the Bible said salvation is possible after death, why couldn't it be?" I've called this an 'Argument From Silence' that goes like: "The Bible never says salvation is possible after death, therefore salvation is possible after death." The logic fails....

Scriptural support.
Romans 5 (NASB)
8But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
9Much more then, having now been justified by His blood, we shall be saved from the wrath of God through Him.

"Premortem salvation" is what Paul taught, what he only taught. He never wrote about "postmortem salvation". If he had written "...we shall be saved from the wrath of God through Him; but everyone else will be 'saved through the wrath of God' through Him after they die"...I'd be a universalist.

Rick
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Post by _Steve » Wed Nov 28, 2007 6:25 pm

Hi Rick,

I have never argued that universal reconciliation is "biblical" (else I would identify myself, of necessity, as a universalist). However, I think it inaccurate to call it "unbiblical" (meaning, contrary to the teaching of scripture, and therefore false). I think the most you can say is that some propositions of universalism are "extra-biblical" (meaning that they are not clearly addressed in the Bible).

I cannot imagine what more would need to be said at this forum, than has already been presented, that would demonstrate that some scriptures seem to point in the direction of universalism, while some seem to point toward other conclusions. This means that the Bible does not (and probably does not intend to) unequivocally address the nature of God's "final solution" with reference to the lost. Where the Bible remains ambiguous, I think it preferable to conclude that 1) God has not seen any reason to clarify the matter, and 2) that it is not necessary for any of us to know the details that God has not chosen to clearly reveal.

I do not waste time worrying whether it would be most accurate for me to say to an unbeliever, "If you don't become a Christian you will be condemned to go to a place of judgment and punishment that is described as a place that has fire and other terrible things in it," or to simply say, "If you don't become a Christian you will go to hell." I am not likely to make either statement to an unbeliever. The apostles never raised such an issue when evangelizing unbelievers, and (unless I am prepared to equate "hades" and/or "gehenna" with what we commonly call hell) it would appear that Jesus did not do so either.

If an unbeliever is not willing to surrender to King Jesus without first being told exactly what the consequences will be for his resistance, then I suspect that man has not yet the capacity to surrender on God's terms at all.

Anyway, without a clearer biblical witness on the subject than what we have, the question, to my mind, seems to be merely an academic one for Christians (to whom it has no direct relevance) to speculate about.
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Post by __id_1679 » Wed Nov 28, 2007 10:58 pm

Hi Steve,

At what point can we identify that any doctrinal view of a group is biblical or unbiblical? How do we identify truth between these differing views since we all use the same bible? What doctrine would you consider contrary to biblical teaching , since in your opinion Universalism is not one of them? What's the standard of measure?

Thanks,
In Jesus
Bob
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