My impressions of the debate in progress

Discuss topics raised by callers on the radio program
_bshow
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Post by _bshow » Thu Apr 10, 2008 6:08 pm

darin-houston wrote: Is there anything in your worldview or exegesis that would permit a class of people to whom God did elect individually to salvation (perhaps someone like Paul or others in God's master plan) with an irrestible measure of grace, and then a second class of people (everyone else) to whom God provided a prevenient sufficient yet resistable measure of grace, with some of those flagrantly disregarding that grace in sufficient measure that God ultimatelly hardened their hearts against belief?
I just don't see this taught affirmatively in the Scripture. The biblical writers certainly don't speak in such terms of two such classes of people.

Cheers,
Bob
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Post by __id_1095 » Thu Apr 10, 2008 6:51 pm

Hi Bob,

you wrote:


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Jess W wrote:

I believe that God knows the future ( or what one would call that which has yet to happen from our perspective within the created universe) but that does not make it predetermined (from His perspective) since He exists outside the created universe (i.e. outside the space-time continuum).



Hi Jess,

I don't believe that my argument rests upon God being time-bound, and I don't believe that an appeal to His timelessness (the Boethian approach) resolves the issue.

Even if God is "outside of time", He can still interact with His creation in time and communicate His foreknowledge in time. See my "stone tablet" illustration in my reply to Jared, above.

Cheers,
Bob


I see two issues here.
1. The first is how can God actually know the future in the classical Arminian understanding, that is without causing it (decreeing it if you will, I don't see the difference) as the Calvinist posits. Or as opposed to the Open theist who views God's present understanding of individuals, their make-up, motives and circumstances so exhaustively that He can predict the future in many cases with an amazing degree of accuracy. I think it is God's existence "outside time" that allows Him to observe what to us would be a future event and know it completely.

2. The second issue is, if God "reaches into time/space" if you will and gives Moses the stone tablet saying, "Bob will choose C-2" has He taken away Bob's free choice?

I agree with you, my post doesn't answer the question whether Bob still has a choice or not after God foretells his future. My post above was addressing primarily the first issue not the second.
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_Sean
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Post by _Sean » Thu Apr 10, 2008 7:07 pm

bshow1 wrote: It's not hard to grasp the idea, but there are several problems with it if true:
  • a) If God foresaw Paul's response, and based His choice on that, then the future is just "out there" and God reacts to it. I don't see how God is thus glorified for how things turn out.
No, the future is not just "out there". The future has not happened yet. God is omniscient, He is all knowing. That means He knows what will happen, He does not need to tap in to what is "out there" as if knowing all things is something outside of God that He has to tap in to. If this were the case, God would have no control at all over future events. This is an attribute of God. More on this below.

As far as how this affects God's glory, that seems to be your prior commitment. I'm not ready to limit God to only being glorified if my personal interpretation of foreknowledge is met.
bshow1 wrote: b) If all future choices are somehow "out there" for God to foresee, then in some sense they are "set" or "fixed". So how can it be said that Paul's choice is "free" or "significant", given the parameters indeterminists put on those terms? This is the main complaint of the Open Theist; if God knows the choice in advance, then the possiblity of choosing the alternative is removed (or God would be wrong), and thus freedom is destroyed. The Open Theist resolves the issue by removing God's foreknowledge.
Jared posted this already in another thread, I'll post it here since the subject has been brought up. William Lane Craig states:
Well, for example, he says foreknowledge is not compatible with freedom. Well, I think that this is simply an invalid argument. It goes something like this:

1. Necessarily, if God foreknows X, then X will happen.

2. God foreknows X.

3. Therefore, necessarily X will happen.

5. Well, that simply commits an elementary fallacy in modal logic. It is simply a fallacious argument, and most people recognize it as such. It is possible that X not happen even though God foreknows it. What is true is that if X were not to happen, then God would not have foreknown X. And as long as that subjunctive counterfactual is true, there is simply no incoherence in God's having knowledge of future contingents.
I find it interesting that Arminians are considered inconsistent open theists. It seems rather that both open theists and Calvinists both deny the same thing. God being completely omniscient. The Calvinist say that God knows all things because He causes all things to occur. I affirm God has both abilities: All power and all knowledge. How these are used and play out in history is what is debated.
bshow1 wrote: c) I don't see Paul as understanding things in this way. He doesn't seem to speak anywhere of God's choice or calling of him as a validation of some foreseen response on Paul's part; quite the contrary.
[/list]

Cheers,
Bob
God's choice isn't a validation of a foreseen response. Do you believe God knew what Paul would do, or do you believe God didn't know but simply caused Paul to comply?

Peace Bro.
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_bshow
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Post by _bshow » Thu Apr 10, 2008 7:27 pm

Hi Sean,

(I hope I get all the nested quoting right :))
Sean wrote:
bshow1 wrote: It's not hard to grasp the idea, but there are several problems with it if true:
  • a) If God foresaw Paul's response, and based His choice on that, then the future is just "out there" and God reacts to it. I don't see how God is thus glorified for how things turn out.
No, the future is not just "out there". The future has not happened yet. God is omniscient, He is all knowing. That means He knows what will happen, He does not need to tap in to what is "out there" as if knowing all things is something outside of God that He has to tap in to. If this were the case, God would have no control at all over future events. This is an attribute of God. More on this below.
Well, that's what I mean by "out there". The shape of the future is outside of God's decree, but He can foresee it.
Sean wrote:As far as how this affects God's glory, that seems to be your prior commitment. I'm not ready to limit God to only being glorified if my personal interpretation of foreknowledge is met.
bshow1 wrote: b) If all future choices are somehow "out there" for God to foresee, then in some sense they are "set" or "fixed". So how can it be said that Paul's choice is "free" or "significant", given the parameters indeterminists put on those terms? This is the main complaint of the Open Theist; if God knows the choice in advance, then the possiblity of choosing the alternative is removed (or God would be wrong), and thus freedom is destroyed. The Open Theist resolves the issue by removing God's foreknowledge.
Jared posted this already in another thread, I'll post it here since the subject has been brought up. William Lane Craig states:
Well, for example, he says foreknowledge is not compatible with freedom. Well, I think that this is simply an invalid argument. It goes something like this:

1. Necessarily, if God foreknows X, then X will happen.

2. God foreknows X.

3. Therefore, necessarily X will happen.

5. Well, that simply commits an elementary fallacy in modal logic. It is simply a fallacious argument, and most people recognize it as such. It is possible that X not happen even though God foreknows it. What is true is that if X were not to happen, then God would not have foreknown X. And as long as that subjunctive counterfactual is true, there is simply no incoherence in God's having knowledge of future contingents.
I'm familiar with Craig's argument here, but I think it misses the mark. I don't think I'm arguing for (3). It's enough that:
  • (3') X will happen.
In order to remove freedom.

The statement, "It is possible that X not happen even though God foreknows it", is nonsense, with all due respect to Dr. Craig.

Perhaps you can make sense out of this? And please carefully define the terms "possible" and "foreknows it".
Sean wrote: I find it interesting that Arminians are considered inconsistent open theists. It seems rather that both open theists and Calvinists both deny the same thing. God being completely omniscient. The Calvinist say that God knows all things because He causes all things to occur. I affirm God has both abilities: All power and all knowledge. How these are used and play out in history is what is debated.
Of course, Calvinists don't deny God's omniscience. They simply observe that indeterministic models of freedom as Arminians themselves define it, undermine any basis for God's foreknowledge. The Arminians aren't ready to throw the testimony of Scripture to God's foreknowledge overboard like the Open Theists do, so they cheerfully hold to the inconsistency.
Sean wrote:
bshow1 wrote: c) I don't see Paul as understanding things in this way. He doesn't seem to speak anywhere of God's choice or calling of him as a validation of some foreseen response on Paul's part; quite the contrary.
[/list]

Cheers,
Bob
God's choice isn't a validation of a foreseen response.
Well, I was responding to your original comment:
Sean wrote:Is is so hard to grasp the idea that Paul had the choice to not be an apostle, but God called him to be an apostle because He knew the choice Paul would make from the foundation of the world?
God chose Paul because he saw that Paul would respond appropriately. That's what I mean by a validation of a foreseen response.

Cheers,
Bob
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Post by _darin-houston » Thu Apr 10, 2008 8:16 pm

I just don't see this taught affirmatively in the Scripture. The biblical writers certainly don't speak in such terms of two such classes of people.

Cheers,
Bob
That wasn't my question -- it may not be affirmatively taught in the Scripture, but much of what we're talking about is reconciling difficult passages and dealing to some extent even with our philosophical presuppositions (yes, we all do it).

My question is, if this resolves the so-called "tension" that Reformers speak of, and it's not precluded by a particular Scripture, and if it unites rather than divides us, and it leaves us with a view of God that is expressed primarily by His love for all mankind, then it is worth serious consideration.

I'm really trying to test this theory against Scripture (as a Berean) -- do you know of any Scripture that would preclude such a possibility?
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_Sean
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Post by _Sean » Thu Apr 10, 2008 8:31 pm

bshow1 wrote: Well, that's what I mean by "out there". The shape of the future is outside of God's decree, but He can foresee it.
I'm not sure what you mean by your statement, is it your summary statement of my position as you see it? I just need clarification before I can respond.
bshow1 wrote: I'm familiar with Craig's argument here, but I think it misses the mark. I don't think I'm arguing for (3). It's enough that:
  • (3') X will happen.
In order to remove freedom.
Not if the outcome that is foreknown by God is your free will choices. The result of "X will happen" is the same, but if the person would have done Y, then Y is what is foreknown. Not only this but God can affect this outcome if He so desire.
bshow1 wrote: The statement, "It is possible that X not happen even though God foreknows it", is nonsense, with all due respect to Dr. Craig.

Perhaps you can make sense out of this? And please carefully define the terms "possible" and "foreknows it".
Sure, lets look at scripture:

1Sa 23:9 David knew that Saul was plotting harm against him. And he said to Abiathar the priest, "Bring the ephod here."
1Sa 23:10 Then said David, "O LORD, the God of Israel, your servant has surely heard that Saul seeks to come to Keilah, to destroy the city on my account.
1Sa 23:11 Will the men of Keilah surrender me into his hand? Will Saul come down, as your servant has heard? O LORD, the God of Israel, please tell your servant." And the LORD said, "He will come down."
1Sa 23:12 Then David said, "Will the men of Keilah surrender me and my men into the hand of Saul?" And the LORD said, "They will surrender you."
1Sa 23:13 Then David and his men, who were about six hundred, arose and departed from Keilah, and they went wherever they could go. When Saul was told that David had escaped from Keilah, he gave up the expedition.


God told David what would happen, but what God predicted did not happen because God revealed this to David and "change the future". Notice that God was required for this to occur, God gave David the information to change the predicted outcome. In short "It is possible that X not happen even though God foreknows it". It is only nonsense if you disbelieve scripture.
bshow1 wrote: Of course, Calvinists don't deny God's omniscience. They simply observe that indeterministic models of freedom as Arminians themselves define it, undermine any basis for God's foreknowledge. The Arminians aren't ready to throw the testimony of Scripture to God's foreknowledge overboard like the Open Theists do, so they cheerfully hold to the inconsistency.
But do you also realize that a consistent Calvinistic view has God bound by His own foreknowledge. For illustration, once God made His decree of the future it is unchangeable, even by God. He's a prisoner of His own decrees, locked up in a theological box. For God does not change.
bshow1 wrote: God chose Paul because he saw that Paul would respond appropriately. That's what I mean by a validation of a foreseen response.

Cheers,
Bob
God chose Paul, God simply knew the future and chose a man to bring the Gospel to the Gentiles. Why would God choose someone who would fail to do this?

Peace.
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Post by _Homer » Thu Apr 10, 2008 8:33 pm

Bob,

You wrote:
Of course, Calvinists don't deny God's omniscience. They simply observe that indeterministic models of freedom as Arminians themselves define it, undermine any basis for God's foreknowledge.
Do you believe that God only has foreknowledge based on His sovereign determination to bring about that which He foreknows? If that is the case, it would seem his omniscience is based totally on what He has determined to bring about, and He can not actually foretell anything else.
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Post by __id_2615 » Thu Apr 10, 2008 10:27 pm

Hi, Bob.

(BTW, I didn't realize your real name was Bob when I made up my illustration. :D I just pulled that name out of the air.)
bshow1 wrote:When the time for choosing comes, choices C1 and C2
are excluded. Bob will chose C2. Period.
I'm curious what your warrant is for this assertion.
Otherwise, God would have held a false belief.
No, otherwise God would have held a belief that Bob chose C1 or C3.
any choice other than C2 would render God's prior belief about C2 false.
Nope. Any choice other than C2 would render God not having a prior belief about C2, but rather a prior belief about the choice other than C2.
To make the point more clearly, suppose that God had given Moses a stone tablet with the inscription: "At time T, Bob will choose C2". There's certainly nothing to prevent Him from having done so, since He knew about C2 from all eternity. Now time T arrives. What choices are open to Bob? Seemingly only C2. It's literally written in stone. So how can the choice be said to be "free", in the incompatibalist sense?
This is to confuse something being causally prior with something being chronologically prior. In the prophecy given to Moses concerning Bob, if Bob had chosen C1 instead of C2, then God would not have given Moses a prophecy that Bob would choose C2, but rather that Bob would choose C1. If it was God's intention to give an accurate prophecy about Bob's choice, he would be able to see into the future and report that Bob's choice was for C1 rather than C2. You would not get a situation where someone makes a choice contrary to prophecy, because a prophecy is simply a report of what will occur in the future (or in the case of conditional prophecies, what will occur in the future given certain circumstances such as Israel's obedience or disobedience). Bob's choice at time T determines the nature of the prophecy given at the time of the prophecy, not the other way around. A prophecy is not a decree, but rather a reporting of events which have not yet occurred. We humans do not have the ability to see into the future to be able to report on what will happen, but God does because he is omniscient.
Furthermore, you haven't established *how* God could know C2, given indeterminism.
Well, the simple answer is that God is omniscient. He knows all true propositions. C2 will happen, therefore he knows it. He doesn't have to decree the decision in order to know that it will happen. I cannot explain *how* any further than that; if you want me to explain how omniscience works, I'm afraid I'm unable to do that. There are a lot of things God does that I can't explain, like *how* did he create the universe, etc.
Calvinists rather maintain that God's decree is the basis for His foreknowledge.
Why is it necessary for God to decree something in order to foreknow it? You don't think he's capable of knowing about something that he didn't decree?
2) You are equivocating on the term foreknowledge. You have an *expectation* that the movie will follow the book plot, but you don't *know* it (in the sense that God knows future events).
A fair criticism. So let's refine the example a little. Lets say I go to see the movie a second time. Upon my second viewing of the movie, I *know* how the events will turn out. But my knowing isn't because I decreed that the events will turn out as they did; I just know it because I've seen it. That's how I imagine God knows future events; not because he necessarily decrees them, but because he sees them, being omniscient.* How it works I do not know. Just like I don't know how he created the universe or figured out how to design a human brain, etc.

(* Of course, I'm not saying he didn't decree any future events, either. Certainly there are many things he did decree. But I do believe he delegated a little bit of his free will to mankind.)
This is like the Middle Knowledge position. But how would God (or anyone else) know that factors X, Y, and Z would cause choice C2 and Q, R, and S would case C3, given the incompatibalistic notion of freedom?
Simple: he's omniscient (refer to my comments above).
If that's the case, then our actions are determined by prior conditions outside of ourselves.
I think I wasn't exactly clear enough. God might not necessarily control or need to control all events by manipulating circumstances. But if he wants to or needs to in order to bring about an overall historical scenario, then he can. I was thinking here more about intervention. Homer, several posts above, states it much more elegantly than my stammering, long-winded, partially informed philosophizing:
Homer wrote:I would say God is always aware of all events, does not interfere most of the time, but when it suits His purpose He exercises His veto power. Paul still had free will on the Road to Damascus, but God made it practically impossible for Paul to make another choice.

This would apply to anything and everything. God is sovereign, in control of all events, while allowing for nature, which He established and superintends, to follow its course and man to have free will.

God established the laws of nature, thus we have gravity. How often does God intervene and not allow gravity to function normally? Yet He is not without ability to do so.
Back to Bob:
bshow1 wrote: But the indeterminism you defend maintains that *no* set of prior conditions is sufficient to produce one choice over another;
No, if it sounded like I was defending that sort of indeterminism, then I didn't do a good job of communicating. That is too extreme. I believe that free will is such a basic part of existence that we cannot exactly explain what it is or how it works. Just like it appears to be impossible to state exactly what energy is, or for that matter, matter, too. We can say that energy is the ability to do work, but that only describes what it does; not what it is. What it actually is is not a question we can answer. Same with free will, and that applies whether you're talking about creaturly free will or God's free will. Same problem. We just have to accept the fact that it exists for we can go no further. So free will being basically a mystery of existence, I can be flexible about what possibly can and cannot influence it, since I know so little about it. From experience I see that it can be influenced by prior conditions as well as external inputs, but I would not try to say that it is completely determined by those conditions. Where the line of demarcation is is something that I leave to the Secret Councils of God.
we can always act contrary to our desires.
No, this is contradictory. Although as stated above I see a lot of mystery in free will, I also recognize that it has a lot to do with desires. Desires are either the result of or the source of our free will (I haven't figured out which, and probably never will, since it is so mysterious). We might have competing desires (as C.S. Lewis describes in Mere Christianity), but I can't make sense of the assertion that we can of our own free will "act contrary to our desires."
So does God get His way by manipulating and tricking us?
So? Who art thou that repliest against God? Who are we to question his means? I admit my illustration may have been an unfortunate choice because of the connotation we have of a magician using deception to "trick" his subject. I'm not trying to suggest that God is a trickster, but that he can get the results he wants by controlling circumstances so as to execute a macro-level plan or to convict someone of sin while not interfering with free will.

I'm not sure that the idea of God controlling circumstances in order to prod someone in the right direction is any more crass than the idea of God deliberately predestining vast numbers of people to hell.

Bob, I have to say that even though I disagree with your viewpoint, I've enjoyed this exchange and your thoughtful commants so far (though I do feel a bit guilty for maybe having stolen the conversation away from Sean :oops: ). It has challenged me to think even more deeply about things, and it is certainly a vast improvement over some of the things that had been going on here a couple days ago with the discussion about the irc chat, etc.

Interesting avatar, BTW.

--Jared
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Post by __id_2645 » Fri Apr 11, 2008 12:06 am

Sean wrote:
PaulT wrote:White refused to answer or did he withdraw when he was spoken over and not given the opportunity to answer? Are you suggesting that in Gregg’s 1st segment yesterday when after inviting White to comment, and then cut him off in mid-sentence is a reasonable standard to expect? 2 way conversation entails cutting one off? Limiting factors? Perhaps you are referring to the method Gregg sprung on White to derive the hoped for answer?

Did not Gregg admit chapters 1,2 & 3 are structured to provide a single argument? I’ve listened to Gregg’s commentary on Romans 3 and haven’t had the chance to ask the question, but from what I gather his view is that “there are none righteous no not one and that there is none that understands there is none that seeks after” is hyperbole, which may or may not come from his view of Ro 1 in isolation but the mere fact that he admits the 3 chapters are to be viewed as one argument building in climax would seem now to suggest perhaps I misunderstood when I listened to the tape. I’m not sure of your conclusion that Gregg’s commentary in later chapters is similar to how White draws the conclusion that Ro 1 is an indictment of all man, do you have a for instance. Frankly, unlike you I’m not sure I understand that White necessarily relies on chapter 3 to determine chapter 1 regards all mankind. White indicated chapter 3 played a part but was cut-off and not allowed to provide a complete answer therefore I wouldn’t want to jump to conclusions that Whites entire basis for Rom 1:18 is hinged on Rom 3. How can you be so sure of Whites reason for not answering, do you have a predisposed agenda? Nevertheless the 1st 3 chapters provide a singular argument which would seem to mitigate against your charge that White is using eisegesis in Ro 1 even if he were basing his entire position on that which is found in Ro 3, at least based on my understand of what eisegesis means. I don’t follow your concept of limiting factor, granted the 1st 3 chapters of Ro are focused on setting forth the basis that all men are under commendation, is this an example of the concept of limiting factor? How does this then apply to Ro 8 & 9 or for that matter 10 & 11? Are you suggesting White reads Ro 8, 9 10 & 11 in a vacuum? From what I gather White sees these chapters building upon one another with an explanation for why his fellow brethren don’t believe? The criticism I heard thus far by White of Gregg in bringing in outside material to buttress his view of a passage is fundamentally different than the 1st 3 chapters of Romans entails, because as I said even if the single basis for Whites position of Ro 1:18 were based on Ro 3, the fact the 3 chapters together build a single argument means he is not importing his view on the text but rather recognizing the Apostles argument for what it entails, how is this eisegesis? For example, I believe it was on day 2 regarding John 6 in answer to White Gregg used both John 17 and I think John 5. The problem as I see it and what if I recall correctly White pointed out is that the 2 chapters Gregg used to comment on John 6 are referring to different subjects than what John 6 is referring. John 17 is a prayer for all believers, John 5 is a condemnation for non believers, however John 6 is about how do men believe. Gregg provided the 2 texts which indicates believers believe and non believers don’t believe, I believe that all parties involved would agree for the most part what visibly separates believers from nonbelievers is belief however the point of John 6 is what if anything enables unbelievers to believe. Gregg begged this question and attempted to limit John 6 by this begged question, which would seem to me is an example of eisegesis.

Thank you for your thoughts,

PaulT
I think you missed my point. Oh, well. Nothing ventured, nothing gained. :?
No doubt,

PaulT
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Post by _bshow » Fri Apr 11, 2008 8:48 pm

Sean wrote:
bshow1 wrote: The statement, "It is possible that X not happen even though God foreknows it", is nonsense, with all due respect to Dr. Craig.

Perhaps you can make sense out of this? And please carefully define the terms "possible" and "foreknows it".
Sure, lets look at scripture:

1Sa 23:9 David knew that Saul was plotting harm against him. And he said to Abiathar the priest, "Bring the ephod here."
1Sa 23:10 Then said David, "O LORD, the God of Israel, your servant has surely heard that Saul seeks to come to Keilah, to destroy the city on my account.
1Sa 23:11 Will the men of Keilah surrender me into his hand? Will Saul come down, as your servant has heard? O LORD, the God of Israel, please tell your servant." And the LORD said, "He will come down."
1Sa 23:12 Then David said, "Will the men of Keilah surrender me and my men into the hand of Saul?" And the LORD said, "They will surrender you."
1Sa 23:13 Then David and his men, who were about six hundred, arose and departed from Keilah, and they went wherever they could go. When Saul was told that David had escaped from Keilah, he gave up the expedition.


God told David what would happen, but what God predicted did not happen because God revealed this to David and "change the future". Notice that God was required for this to occur, God gave David the information to change the predicted outcome. In short "It is possible that X not happen even though God foreknows it". It is only nonsense if you disbelieve scripture.
Hi Sean,

(Why should fellow believers accuse each other of disbelieving scripture? I don't think I've done that to you...)

In any event, the illustration doesn't reach the issue.

Here is what happened:
  • Saul did not come down to the city.
In order to prove Craig's statement rational, you need to demonstrate that God foreknew:
  • Saul came down to the city.
You haven't done it. At best you've shown that Saul had an *intention* to come down, but that doesn't even illustrate foreknowledge; only a knowledge of the current state of affairs.

I remain unconvinced. Craig's assertion is still nonsense.

Cheers,
Bob
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