My impressions of the debate in progress

Discuss topics raised by callers on the radio program
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Post by _bshow » Fri Apr 11, 2008 8:53 pm

Homer wrote:Bob,

You wrote:
Of course, Calvinists don't deny God's omniscience. They simply observe that indeterministic models of freedom as Arminians themselves define it, undermine any basis for God's foreknowledge.
Do you believe that God only has foreknowledge based on His sovereign determination to bring about that which He foreknows? If that is the case, it would seem his omniscience is based totally on what He has determined to bring about, and He can not actually foretell anything else.
Hi Homer,

I wouldn't phrase it like "bring about that which He foreknows?". As I've said, I believe that God's decree is the basis for His foreknowledge.

Beyond that, I don't know what you're getting at by "He can not actually foretell anything else".

Believe me, I know that Arminians very cheerfully hold to the supposed compatibility of indeterministic free will and exhaustive Divine foreknowledge. I applaud those who at least haven't tossed God's omniscience overboard like the Open Theists...

Cheers,
Bob
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Post by _Steve » Sat Apr 12, 2008 12:42 am

Bob,

You wrote to Homer:

"I wouldn't phrase it like 'bring about that which He foreknows?'. As I've said, I believe that God's decree is the basis for His foreknowledge."

This is something that I find very confusing about Calvinists.

They say that if God does not decree the future, then He can't certainly know it.

This seems to mean that He must determine the future (since this is what the Calvinist idea of "decree" means), or else He can not know it.

If He determines the future, then either He must bring it to pass, or else leave it to other factors, like man's free will, or something else not directly controlled by God, to determine the outcome.

If He leaves it to something not directly under His control, then it might turn out differently than what He has decreed will occur.

Thus, to successfully know the future, God must decree it. But to decree (that is, determine) it, He must maintain complete control over all the causative factors.

If He is controlling and dictating all the causative factors, then He is "bringing it to pass" or "making it happen."

Yet, Calvinists are often squeamish (as you seem to be) about saying that God brings everything to pass, or makes it happen.

I am just trying to understand what the Calvinist thinks God is and is not doing in the process of decreeing future events. Is He decreeing what He is going to "bring to pass" (and if so, why deny that this is your belief), or is He simply aware of what other wills are going to bring to pass (which is essentially the Arminian position)?

There may be a reasonable Calvinist answer, which is why I am asking you. But up to this point, it just seems that Calvinists do not have the courage of their convictions to state plainly what are the unavoidable implications of their affirmations about decrees.

I am sincerely wanting you to help me out with this.

Next, Homer's point would seem to be:

If you are saying that God only knows about the future things that He has decreed that He will do, then He does not possess a quality called "foreknowledge" any more than any of us possess—since we can also predict what we intend to do.

If one retorts that we cannot perfectly predict what we will accomplish, because there are forces beyond our control that may thwart our intentions, this does not change my point. It is only saying that God's purposes cannot be thwarted, whereas ours can. This is an affirmation of His omnipotence, and our impotence. But that is a separate attribute from omniscience.

God knows that He can accomplish whatever He wishes, and He knows what He wishes to do. This does not confer to Him any intrinsic powers of knowledge more than what men possess. The only difference is that it is less predictable that man's purposes will succeed. God's success, on the assumption of His omnipotence, is completely predictable, but involves no greater quality of foreknowledge than my knowing that, when I step on a bug, it will certainly be squished.

You may be correct in saying that God does not possess foreknowledge other than about such things as He intends to accomplish by His superior power, but then you are saying no more about God's foreknowledge than the Open Theist is saying. They believe precisely the same thing.
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Post by __id_2645 » Sat Apr 12, 2008 3:05 am

Steve wrote:Bob,

You wrote to Homer:

"I wouldn't phrase it like 'bring about that which He foreknows?'. As I've said, I believe that God's decree is the basis for His foreknowledge."

This is something that I find very confusing about Calvinists.

They say that if God does not decree the future, then He can't certainly know it.

This seems to mean that He must determine the future (since this is what the Calvinist idea of "decree" means), or else He can not know it.

If He determines the future, then either He must bring it to pass, or else leave it to other factors, like man's free will, or something else not directly controlled by God, to determine the outcome.

If He leaves it to something not directly under His control, then it might turn out differently than what He has decreed will occur.

Thus, to successfully know the future, God must decree it. But to decree (that is, determine) it, He must maintain complete control over all the causative factors.

If He is controlling and dictating all the causative factors, then He is "bringing it to pass" or "making it happen."

Yet, Calvinists are often squeamish (as you seem to be) about saying that God brings everything to pass, or makes it happen.
Not to barge in but I though that mean old John Calvin might have something to say on the subject, taken from, his work entitled the Institutes of the Christian Religion,
7. The Apostle shows that the same thing has been done in regard to individuals under the Christian dispensation.
“But before I enter on the subject, I have some remarks to address to two classes of men. The subject of predestination, which in itself is attended with considerable difficulty is rendered very perplexed and hence perilous by human curiosity, which cannot be restrained from wandering into forbidden paths and climbing to the clouds determined if it can that none of the secret things of God shall remain unexplored….For it is not right that man should with impunity pry into things which the Lord has been pleased to conceal within himself, and scan that sublime eternal wisdom which it is his pleasure that we should not apprehend but adore, that therein also his perfections may appear. Those secrets of his will, which he has seen it meet to manifest, are revealed in his word--revealed in so far as he knew to be conducive to our interest and welfare.”
http://www.reformed.org/master/index.ht ... nstitutes/

Methinks some of what you ask is not answered in Scripture and therefore one of those “secret” things of God that Calvin cautions about drawing implications around. Nevertheless if He doesn’t decree it how can He know it, if indeed it is subject to change based on the decision of a finite created being? What is really interesting about your question is that I thought I heard you suggest that while God doesn’t necessarily cause the death of someone by Him allowing that specific death, that death is within His will. Do you not think this concept is within the Calvinist viewpoint? BTW, do you think God is indeed somehow not in control, but is at the mercy of events and circumstances?
Steve wrote:Bob,
I am just trying to understand what the Calvinist thinks God is and is not doing in the process of decreeing future events. Is He decreeing what He is going to "bring to pass" (and if so, why deny that this is your belief), or is He simply aware of what other wills are going to bring to pass (which is essentially the Arminian position)?

There may be a reasonable Calvinist answer, which is why I am asking you. But up to this point, it just seems that Calvinists do not have the courage of their convictions to state plainly what are the unavoidable implications of their affirmations about decrees.

I am sincerely wanting you to help me out with this.
You somehow seem to indicate God is obligated to inform His creatures of all of His ways. I think Calvin effectively answered your “implications” question, “For it is not right that man should with impunity pry into things which the Lord has been pleased to conceal within himself”
Steve wrote:Bob,
Next, Homer's point would seem to be:

If you are saying that God only knows about the future things that He has decreed that He will do, then He does not possess a quality called "foreknowledge" any more than any of us possess—since we can also predict what we intend to do.

If one retorts that we cannot perfectly predict what we will accomplish, because there are forces beyond our control that may thwart our intentions, this does not change my point. It is only saying that God's purposes cannot be thwarted, whereas ours can. This is an affirmation of His omnipotence, and our impotence. But that is a separate attribute from omniscience.

God knows that He can accomplish whatever He wishes, and He knows what He wishes to do. This does not confer to Him any intrinsic powers of knowledge more than what men possess. The only difference is that it is less predictable that man's purposes will succeed. God's success, on the assumption of His omnipotence, is completely predictable, but involves no greater quality of foreknowledge than my knowing that, when I step on a bug, it will certainly be squished.

You may be correct in saying that God does not possess foreknowledge other than about such things as He intends to accomplish by His superior power, but then you are saying no more about God's foreknowledge than the Open Theist is saying. They believe precisely the same thing.
In your estimation where is knowledge derived from? If mans knowledge is derived from God and God is entirely independent, self derived, aseity then isn’t God’s knowledge intrinsically greater than mans?

PaulT
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Post by _darin-houston » Sat Apr 12, 2008 8:14 am

In your estimation where is knowledge derived from? If mans knowledge is derived from God and God is entirely independent, self derived, aseity then isn’t God’s knowledge intrinsically greater than mans?
Why must God's knowledge be entirely independent, self-derived? This is a concept of God I've never understood and seems to relegate him to an impersonal and immovable force instead of a sentient being that loves and is capable of love and something not too far different from human emotion (our being made in His image). Such a view of God deprives Him, I think, of His creative aspect, which breathes meaning into all of Creation (unless you subscribe to the view of Creation that is just a proof-play of His power to Himself).

A related question is how is it not possible that even a God in your mold who still wanted to be surprised and experience things anew couldn't somehow veil His all-knowing-ness (as He most certainly did in measure in the humanity of Christ).
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Post by _bshow » Sat Apr 12, 2008 9:45 am

Steve wrote:Bob,

You wrote to Homer:

"I wouldn't phrase it like 'bring about that which He foreknows?'. As I've said, I believe that God's decree is the basis for His foreknowledge."

This is something that I find very confusing about Calvinists.

They say that if God does not decree the future, then He can't certainly know it.

This seems to mean that He must determine the future (since this is what the Calvinist idea of "decree" means), or else He can not know it.
Hi Steve, glad you jumped in!

No, I don't say that God cannot know the future unless He decrees it. God could know the future if, for example, fatalism is true.

What I do say, is that God (nor anyone else) can know the future unless the future is "settled" in a sense that excludes indeterministic creaturely freedom. I know you and other non-Calvinists believe the two can co-exist, but nobody has been able to show me how that works out. Since the Scriptures don't teach indeterministic creaturely freedom (but teach compatibilistic freedom instead), and they do teach that God possesses exhaustive knowledge of the future, I reject the former and hold to the latter.

I wouldn't use Homer's phraseology "bring about that which He foreknows", because that implies (to me), that foreknowledge logically precedes decree.
Steve wrote: If He determines the future, then either He must bring it to pass, or else leave it to other factors, like man's free will, or something else not directly controlled by God, to determine the outcome.

If He leaves it to something not directly under His control, then it might turn out differently than what He has decreed will occur.

Thus, to successfully know the future, God must decree it. But to decree (that is, determine) it, He must maintain complete control over all the causative factors.
Again, not necessarily. However, *some* form of determinism must be true. Libertarian free will doesn't fit with exhaustive divine foreknowledge, whether based on God's decree or on some other factor.

The Arminian wants to have his cake and eat it too, it seems. When it suits him, God can perfectly control the outcome of history. But on the other hand, He cannot decree the individual outcome of any individual.
Steve wrote: If He is controlling and dictating all the causative factors, then He is "bringing it to pass" or "making it happen."

Yet, Calvinists are often squeamish (as you seem to be) about saying that God brings everything to pass, or makes it happen.
No, not at all. I'm just reluctant to base decree on foreknowledge. I embrace the doctrine that God accomplishes all things afer the counsel of His will (Eph. 1:11).
Steve wrote: I am just trying to understand what the Calvinist thinks God is and is not doing in the process of decreeing future events. Is He decreeing what He is going to "bring to pass" (and if so, why deny that this is your belief), or is He simply aware of what other wills are going to bring to pass (which is essentially the Arminian position)?
I haven't deined that God is bringing all things to pass, as I explained above.
Steve wrote: There may be a reasonable Calvinist answer, which is why I am asking you. But up to this point, it just seems that Calvinists do not have the courage of their convictions to state plainly what are the unavoidable implications of their affirmations about decrees.

I am sincerely wanting you to help me out with this.

Next, Homer's point would seem to be:

If you are saying that God only knows about the future things that He has decreed that He will do, then He does not possess a quality called "foreknowledge" any more than any of us possess—since we can also predict what we intend to do.

If one retorts that we cannot perfectly predict what we will accomplish, because there are forces beyond our control that may thwart our intentions, this does not change my point. It is only saying that God's purposes cannot be thwarted, whereas ours can. This is an affirmation of His omnipotence, and our impotence. But that is a separate attribute from omniscience.

God knows that He can accomplish whatever He wishes, and He knows what He wishes to do. This does not confer to Him any intrinsic powers of knowledge more than what men possess. The only difference is that it is less predictable that man's purposes will succeed. God's success, on the assumption of His omnipotence, is completely predictable, but involves no greater quality of foreknowledge than my knowing that, when I step on a bug, it will certainly be squished.

You may be correct in saying that God does not possess foreknowledge other than about such things as He intends to accomplish by His superior power, but then you are saying no more about God's foreknowledge than the Open Theist is saying. They believe precisely the same thing.
Again, the entire line of argument is based on a critical underlying presupposition, namely, that indeterministic or incompatibilistic freedom is the only kind of freedom possible.

The relationship between God and His creation is not one among peers. He is the creator; we are the creation.

His decree encompasses the whole sweep of history, including the actions of volitional, morally responsible agents. These agents are free in a compatibilistic sense, which is (I believe) the biblical sense. He can accomplish His purpose in everything and still allow for secondary causes and moral responsibility.

Cheers,
Bob
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Post by _Steve » Sat Apr 12, 2008 9:50 am

Calvin wrote:

"...human curiosity, which cannot be restrained from wandering into forbidden paths...that none of the secret things of God shall remain unexplored….For it is not right that man should with impunity pry into things which the Lord has been pleased to conceal within himself..."


I guess a fair question would be, if something like the Calvinistic view of predestination is one of the "forbidden paths," and "the hidden things" which the "Lord has been pleased to conceal within himself," then how did Calvinists learn about them?

Either God has revealed something about predestination, or He has hidden it. If He has hidden it, then how does the Calvinist pry behind that vail and learn this august secret? But if God has not hidden it, and has spoken about it to us, then why is it irreverent to consider what He said in a rational manner?

Is it a secret, or is it a revealed truth? Why is it revealed only to the neo-platonists (Augustine, Calvin, etc.), but concealed and off-limits from the body of Christ at large?
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Post by __id_2645 » Sat Apr 12, 2008 12:05 pm

Steve wrote:Calvin wrote:

"...human curiosity, which cannot be restrained from wandering into forbidden paths...that none of the secret things of God shall remain unexplored….For it is not right that man should with impunity pry into things which the Lord has been pleased to conceal within himself..."


I guess a fair question would be, if something like the Calvinistic view of predestination is one of the "forbidden paths," and "the hidden things" which the "Lord has been pleased to conceal within himself," then how did Calvinists learn about them?

Either God has revealed something about predestination, or He has hidden it. If He has hidden it, then how does the Calvinist pry behind that vail and learn this august secret? But if God has not hidden it, and has spoken about it to us, then why is it irreverent to consider what He said in a rational manner?

Is it a secret, or is it a revealed truth? Why is it revealed only to the neo-platonists (Augustine, Calvin, etc.), but concealed and off-limits from the body of Christ at large?
You recast my response, I did not suggest the view of “predestination” was a hidden truth, what I’m suggesting is that your line of questioning is based on the “implication” of where you seemingly think the view leads, is the hidden truth. That is the point, what you think is “implied” is the hidden truth, Calvin stated we should not delve into what you believe to be the implication of the concepts revealed in Scripture. The fact God decreed all that comes to pass, predestines history is a clear biblical teaching the “implications” of what you seemingly think the view leads are what is not revealed. Therefore your last question is illegitimate because the concept of predestination is revealed in Scripture just not the implication.

Gotcha, the concept that through God’s sovereignty He decrees all that comes to pass originated with Plato and not Scripture, poisoning the well? Didn’t Justin suggest Plato got this from Moses? Or, was it that matter eternally co-existed with God? On the other hand I didn’t realize the concept that knowledge is derived from God is a “neo-Platonist” concept? BTW, I didn’t see your answer to my question, but I would suggest the concept that knowledge is derived from God is missed by more than just part of the body of Christ but all those that likewise deny God. You know this was one of the key fights Augustine, (I guess according to you the neo-Platonist) had with a guy named Pelagian, (what would he be a neo-Aristotleist).

PaulT
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Post by __id_2645 » Sat Apr 12, 2008 4:34 pm

darin-houston wrote:
In your estimation where is knowledge derived from? If mans knowledge is derived from God and God is entirely independent, self derived, aseity then isn’t God’s knowledge intrinsically greater than mans?
Why must God's knowledge be entirely independent, self-derived?
Well in answer to your question, “Why must God's knowledge be entirely independent, self-derived?” it is what Scripture teaches, “in whom are hid all the treasures of knowledge and wisdom” Col 2:3. Not a very “ambiguous statement, wouldn’t you agree? Additionally if God is not the source of knowledge where does knowledge come from, did it always eternally coexist with God outside of Him, kind of like the Mormon view they co-opted from the Greeks about “intelligences”. The view that enables they to argue as man is god once was and god is man may become?
darin-houston wrote:
In your estimation where is knowledge derived from? If mans knowledge is derived from God and God is entirely independent, self derived, aseity then isn’t God’s knowledge intrinsically greater than mans?
This is a concept of God I've never understood and seems to relegate him to an impersonal and immovable force instead of a sentient being that loves and is capable of love and something not too far different from human emotion (our being made in His image).
I can understand your inability to comprehend this concept, heck how can a creature ever fully comprehend the Creator? Nevertheless I don’t follow you line of reasoning, because God is the source of knowledge and man derives his knowledge from Him that necessarily means God is impersonal? Do parents necessarily tell their children everything? Does this then mean they are impersonal? The Scripture clearly defines God as having both attributes, He is the source of all “wisdom and knowledge” while He is also personal. If Scripture reveals that God has both attributes who is man the creature to question the revelation? The Christian perspective of God is that while He transcends Creation He still interacts with Creation on a personal level. And because of this all Creation must submit to him, I do believe this is Paul’s apologetic in Acts 17 when he confronted the Athenians.
darin-houston wrote:
In your estimation where is knowledge derived from? If mans knowledge is derived from God and God is entirely independent, self derived, aseity then isn’t God’s knowledge intrinsically greater than mans?
Such a view of God deprives Him, I think, of His creative aspect, which breathes meaning into all of Creation (unless you subscribe to the view of Creation that is just a proof-play of His power to Himself).
Why would such a view that God transcends Creation and knowledge originates from Him deprive God of His creative ability? I don’t understand your assertion, are you suggesting Creation was forced upon God?
darin-houston wrote:
In your estimation where is knowledge derived from? If mans knowledge is derived from God and God is entirely independent, self derived, aseity then isn’t God’s knowledge intrinsically greater than mans?
A related question is how is it not possible that even a God in your mold who still wanted to be surprised and experience things anew couldn't somehow veil His all-knowing-ness (as He most certainly did in measure in the humanity of Christ).
Where does the concept that God would want to be surprised originate from? God experience things anew? Help me understand how your question above is related to the question about where does knowledge come from? However in the final analysis I sure hope God had a full comprehension about the Laws He installed that govern the universe, I have a flight on Monday and I trust “Bernoulli’s” principle still works.

PaulT
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Post by _Rick_C » Sat Apr 12, 2008 5:47 pm

PaulT wrote:“Why must God's knowledge be entirely independent, self-derived?” it is what Scripture teaches, “in whom are hid all the treasures of knowledge and wisdom” Col 2:3.
Colossians 2 (NIV)
1I want you to know how much I am struggling for you and for those at Laodicea, and for all who have not met me personally. 2My purpose is that they may be encouraged in heart and united in love, so that they may have the full riches of complete understanding, in order that they may know the mystery of God, namely, Christ, 3in whom are hidden all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge. 4I tell you this so that no one may deceive you by fine-sounding arguments. 5For though I am absent from you in body, I am present with you in spirit and delight to see how orderly you are and how firm your faith in Christ is.


If I'm following you, you think Col. 2:3 is talking about God the Father's entirely independent, self-derived knowledge.

Paul was not writing about the Father's [Own] attributes and/or their nature here.

Rather, he simply wrote that it is in the person Christ, that Christ himself is the one whom Christians both personally know---and in whom they do discover---the otherwise hidden 'mystery' of God!

Can you explain how you came to the conclusion that Paul was writing about "God the Father's independent, self-derived knowledge" from this text?
(I don't see the connection), thanks.
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Post by __id_2645 » Sat Apr 12, 2008 6:35 pm

Rick_C wrote:
PaulT wrote:“Why must God's knowledge be entirely independent, self-derived?” it is what Scripture teaches, “in whom are hid all the treasures of knowledge and wisdom” Col 2:3.
Colossians 2 (NIV)
1I want you to know how much I am struggling for you and for those at Laodicea, and for all who have not met me personally. 2My purpose is that they may be encouraged in heart and united in love, so that they may have the full riches of complete understanding, in order that they may know the mystery of God, namely, Christ, 3in whom are hidden all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge. 4I tell you this so that no one may deceive you by fine-sounding arguments. 5For though I am absent from you in body, I am present with you in spirit and delight to see how orderly you are and how firm your faith in Christ is.


If I'm following you, you think Col. 2:3 is talking about God the Father's entirely independent, self-derived knowledge.

Paul was not writing about the Father's [Own] attributes and/or their nature here.

Rather, he simply wrote that it is in the person Christ, that Christ himself is the one whom Christians both personally know---and in whom they do discover---the otherwise hidden 'mystery' of God!

Can you explain how you came to the conclusion that Paul was writing about "God the Father's independent, self-derived knowledge" from this text?
(I don't see the connection), thanks.
Do you believe in the orthodox view of God? If you do then, help me out here is not Christ God? I’m not sure I specified which person of the trinity the passage was addressing, but the fact Christ is God and in Him is all wisdom and knowledge therefore if you believe in the orthodox view of God would it not follow that in God is all wisdom and knowledge.

PaulT
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