Historic premillennialism questions???

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Sean
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Re: Historic premillennialism questions???

Post by Sean » Sat Jun 06, 2009 3:11 am

scotty wrote:
3) Partial -Preterism -- it makes alot of sense to me but hinges on an early date writing of Revelation. That's constitutes a shaky foundation in my mind.
Could it be that only a few chapters in the early part of Revelation speak of the fall of Jerusalem and the rest speak of the fall of Rome? (Or something else)
It's also of note that the beginning of the book of Revelation speaks of the time being near and these things will shortly take place. Some of these events seem to be parallel events that happened at the fall of Jerusalem (Revelation 6 & Matthew 24).

I guess I'm just saying that I consider internal evidence to be greater than external writings about the date of the book of Revelation. External writers can be mistaken.
He will not fail nor be discouraged till He has established justice in the earth. (Isaiah 42:4)

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Re: Historic premillennialism questions???

Post by scotty » Sat Jun 06, 2009 5:25 am

Paidion, Doug, Sean...thanks for the links/input.

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Re: Historic premillennialism questions???

Post by look2jesus » Sat Jun 06, 2009 5:30 am

Paidion,

Hello again, brother. When you brought up Matt. 25 it brought to mind some of the questions that I had concerning the resurrection that really caused me to doubt the whole scheme of premillennialism, historic or otherwise. I wonder if you could explain your view of things concerning the timing of the different events we find taking place in Scripture (Christ's Second Coming, judgment of the saints, judgment of the wicked, the destruction of death, the burning up of the present heavens and earth) along with the various participants involved (the righteous and the unrighteous, both living and dead) as they relate specifically to the timing of the resurrection.

So far in my journey, I've come to understand that there is only one resurrection day, which includes the righteous and the unrighteous (John 5:28-29, Acts 24:15, Dan. 12:2, Mt. 13:30 and 39, and 2Thes. 1:3-10 as Scotty mentioned), and that it is at this time that death is destroyed (1Cor. 15:20-28, 1Cor. 15:51-57, Rev. 20:5-14), at the same time the present earth and the heavens are destroyed (2Pet. 3:7-13, Rom. 8:19-23), all of which commences with the coming of Christ (1Thes. 4:13-18, 1Cor.15:23, 51-52) on the last day (John 6:44-54, John 11:23-24), followed immediately by the judgment (Rev. 20:11-12, Mt. 16:27, 2Pet. 3:7, Mt. 13:36-43).

To my mind, these Scriptures seem to preclude a belief in a literal thousand year reign of Christ on the present earth because they show that on the day that Christ returns we have: 1) The resurrection, which removes from the earth all people, leaving no one to populate the earth. 2) The actual destruction of the present earth and heavens leaving no planet for non-glorified people to inhabit. 3) The abolishing of Death making it awfully hard to see how an infant could literally die at a hundred years, or anyone else, for that matter, and 4) the resurrection is said to occur on the last day leaving no more days at all, not to mention a thousand years.

I haven't found a way that would allow these events to be separated in time from the resurrection without doing some real gymnastics with the Scriptures.

Comments anyone?
And it is my prayer that your love may abound more and more, with knowlege and discernment...Philippians 1:9 ESV

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Re: Historic premillennialism questions???

Post by scotty » Sat Jun 06, 2009 8:57 am

look2jesus,

As one who leans towards Historic premillennialism, this is my dilemma too. The question of what exactly happens at the Lord's second coming puzzles me. So far I've not fully and confidently been able to square a premillennial view with the second advent. From the verses you mentioned it does appear that evil is defeated, the resurrection and judgment of both believers and unbelievers occurs, a new heaven/new earth is created (or recreated?)_ and eternity begins. A conundrum indeed for a HP leaning dude!

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Re: Historic premillennialism questions???

Post by Paidion » Sat Jun 06, 2009 11:56 am

L2J wrote:To my mind, these Scriptures seem to preclude a belief in a literal thousand year reign of Christ on the present earth because they show that on the day that Christ returns we have: 1) The resurrection, which removes from the earth all people, leaving no one to populate the earth. 2) The actual destruction of the present earth and heavens leaving no planet for non-glorified people to inhabit. 3) The abolishing of Death making it awfully hard to see how an infant could literally die at a hundred years, or anyone else, for that matter, and 4) the resurrection is said to occur on the last day leaving no more days at all, not to mention a thousand years.
To set out a whole possible time frame would take some time ---- time I'm not sure I want to invest since eschatology does not take a very high place in my list of spiritual priorities.

However, I will point out that John, in Revelation, does not seem to see all of these things taking place at the coming of Christ. Rather he seems to teach a resurrection of the righteous at the beginning of the millenium, and a resurrection of "the rest" at the end of the millenium. He taught a "great white throne" judgment of "the rest" at the end of the millenium. Other scriptures teach a judgment of those who will be raised to life when Christ comes (before millenium). In any case, let's examine a passage where John, in his vision, saw these events separated by 1000 years:


In his vision (19:11-16), John sees Christ coming on a white horse to make war against His enemies, those who had put the saints to death. There's no doubt in my mind, that what John saw represents the second coming of Christ.

19:17-21 describes how the armies of the beast and the kings of the earth gather to make war against Christ, and how the beast and the false prophet are captured, and how they are cast alive into the lake of fire, and how Christ puts to death the rest of His enemies with a word (the sword which proceeds from his mouth).

20:1-3 states that Satan is cast into “the bottomless pit” and bound for a thousand years

20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat on them, and judgment was committed to them. Then I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded for their witness to Jesus and for the word of God, who had not worshiped the beast or his image, and had not received his mark on their foreheads or on their hands. And they lived and reigned with Christ for a thousand years. NKJV

In his vision, John saw that those who had died then “lived and reigned with Christ for a thousand years”. Many translators correctly understand that they “came to life” and so translate it (NIV, NASB, RSV, ESV, Philips). If we are now living in the millennium, in what sense are we “reigning with Christ”? It seems to me that we have little authority on this earth. Others have their way, permitting and protecting the practices of infanticide (“partial birth abortions”), homosexual marriages, etc.

Not only so, but we haven’t died yet. The ones John saw in his vision who would rule and reign with Christ were those who were beheaded for their witness to Jesus.

Some may think that the reference is to the martyrs, who have died over the centuries, for their witness to Jesus. They think the martyrs are now ruling and reigning (as disembodied spirits) with the resurrected Christ in the heavenlies. If that is the case, over whom are they ruling and reigning? Are they ruling and reigning over the Christ's disciples, those of His Kingdom who are alive here on earth? Are your deceased Christian relatives ruling and reigning over you?

We read that Christ is the first-born from the dead, and the first-born of many brethren. Surely it is with these resurrected brethren that He will reign, not with disembodied spirits.

20:5 But the rest of the dead did not live again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
20:6 Blessed and holy is he who has part in the first resurrection. Over such the second death has no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with Him a thousand years.


In his vision, John saw that the rest of the dead lived again at the end of the thousand years. This appears to be a resurrection to life of these ones at the end on the millennium. If so, then this is a pretty strong indication that those whom John saw as beheaded in his vision, and who would live and reign with Christ for a thousand years, also experienced a resurrection prior to the millennium (when Christ returned). This is the first resurrection. (vs5). Because this sentence immediately follows “But the rest of the dead did not live again until the thousand years were finished,” suggests at first sight that the first resurrection refers to “the rest of the dead”. But it doesn’t. It refers back to those who lived (came to life) and reigned with Christ for a thousand years. This is made clear in the following verse (vs 6). So if that is specified as “the first resurrection,” then there must be a second resurrection. The second is doubtless the resurrection of those who “did not live again until the thousand years were finished.”
Last edited by Paidion on Sun Jun 07, 2009 3:56 pm, edited 2 times in total.
Paidion

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Re: Historic premillennialism questions???

Post by look2jesus » Sat Jun 06, 2009 11:08 pm

Paidion,

Thank you for taking the time to explain a little bit about your understanding of Rev. 20. I know it would take a long time to dig deep enough into the subject to fully explain yourself. I agree with you that eschatology is not the most important thing we Christians need to spend our energies on. I doubt if it was original with him, but my father used to say to me, "Son, Jesus said we're to occupy 'til He comes, not be occupied with His coming." There's some truth in that. But thanks again, you've given me some things to consider and as time permits perhaps we can pursue this some more in the future. I'll be watching your posts. God bless you.

l2j
Last edited by look2jesus on Sat Jun 06, 2009 11:29 pm, edited 1 time in total.
And it is my prayer that your love may abound more and more, with knowlege and discernment...Philippians 1:9 ESV

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Re: Historic premillennialism questions???

Post by look2jesus » Sat Jun 06, 2009 11:28 pm

Scotty,

Hello brother. I remember feeling rather angry at my teachers when I discovered that there are a lot of "valid" views of the millennium out there but I had never been taught word one about them, for or against. I would suggest having patience in your studies and don't be afraid to say, "I don't know". It can be rather comforting, in a way. For me, sometimes it's easier to see what things cannot be true than to give a positive statement about what I think is true. Know what I mean? Anyway, may God bless us all in our journeys, where ever we may be. :)

l2j
And it is my prayer that your love may abound more and more, with knowlege and discernment...Philippians 1:9 ESV

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Re: Historic premillennialism questions???

Post by scotty » Sun Jun 07, 2009 7:59 am

l2j,

First, I want to thank Paidion, you and others for your effort/input.

Like I said previously, I currently lean HP but have a hard time with scripture verses regarding the second advent and an actual millennial period. However, I proceed on :D

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Re: Historic premillennialism questions???

Post by Paidion » Sun Jun 07, 2009 4:02 pm

Thank you, L2J, for your respect and courtesy. May God richly bless you, too! And you, Scotty!
May His enabling grace be with us all, as together we seek truth and reality!
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Re: Historic premillennialism questions???

Post by Paidion » Sun Jun 07, 2009 4:28 pm

Sean you wrote:It's also of note that the beginning of the book of Revelation speaks of the time being near and these things will shortly take place.
Somehow it seems that when the Scripture speaks of some event or time being "near" it does not necessarily mean "near" in the same sense that we would use the word. For example, the following passage seems to identify Christ's second coming with "the Day of the Lord". Paul seems to be referring to what he wrote in I Thess 4, concerning the Lord coming with a shout, the dead in Christ being raised, and we who are alive at the time, being caught up together with them.

Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our assembling to meet him, we beg you, brethren, not to be quickly shaken in mind or excited, either by spirit or by word, or by letter purporting to be from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come. Let no one deceive you in any way; for that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of perdition, who opposes and exalts himself against every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, proclaiming himself to be God. 2 Thessalonians 2:1-4 RSV

Paul says "the man of lawlessness" will be revealed prior to the day of the Lord. The early Christian writers identified that man with "the Beast" (or the personal Antichrist), who will head that rebellion before Christ comes.

In any case, Christ's second coming, or "the day of the Lord" has not occurred. It is still in the future. But the Old Testament writers stated that for them the Day of the Lord was near:

Isaiah 13:6 Wail, for the day of the LORD is near; as destruction from the Almighty it will come!
Ezekiel 30:3 For the day is near, the day of the LORD is near; it will be a day of clouds, a time of doom for the nations.
Joel 1:15 Alas for the day! For the day of the LORD is near, and as destruction from the Almighty it comes.
Joel 2:1 Blow the trumpet in Zion; sound the alarm on my holy mountain! Let all the inhabitants of the land tremble, for the day of the LORD is coming, it is near.
Joel 3:14 Multitudes, multitudes, in the valley of decision! For the day of the LORD is near in the valley of decision.
Obadiah 1:15 For the day of the LORD is near upon all the nations. As you have done, it shall be done to you, your deeds shall return on your own head.
Zephaniah 1:14 The great day of the LORD is near, near and hastening fast; the sound of the day of the LORD is bitter, the mighty man cries aloud there.


So if the coming of that great "day of the Lord" was "near" in the days of these OT writers, then surely it was also "near" in the days in which John wrote Revelation. But that does not force us to accept 70 A.D. as being the time of Christ's second coming or the beginning of "the day of the Lord". Surely, the time is yet future.
Paidion

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